Is it possible for a Calvinist to believe that "salvation is available to every individual" if the meaning is clarified the right way? Or do you think that that is definitely not a Calvinist statement.
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I'm letting Calvinists clarify it. I'm just wondering Calvinists here can find some sense to give the statement so that they would agree with it.Imblessed said:would you care to clarify what it means?![]()
TSIBHOD said:I'm letting Calvinists clarify it. I'm just wondering Calvinists here can find some sense to give the statement so that they would agree with it.
There are some things to which I say, "That's definitely not true." There are other things to which I say, "That could be true, depending on how you define it." So I'm wondering what Calvinists think about my original statement. Do they think it is definitely not true, or do they think that it could be true if it was defined in the right way?
)TSIBHOD said:Is it possible for a Calvinist to believe that "salvation is available to every individual" if the meaning is clarified the right way? Or do you think that that is definitely not a Calvinist statement.
TSIBHOD said:Is it possible for a Calvinist to believe that "salvation is available to every individual" if the meaning is clarified the right way? Or do you think that that is definitely not a Calvinist statement.
frumanchu said:I would have to say it is true, depending on the context of the statement.
The Gospel is preached to all men, elect and reprobate alike. All men have free will in the sense that they have the natural ability to choose according to their desire. But only the elect, upon regeneration by the Holy Spirit, have the moral ability to choose Christ. The will of the unregenerate man is in slavery to sin. Only when he is freed from the wicked desires of his own heart can he truly incline himself to good and to God.
Salvation is available to every individual, but only the elect shall lay hold of it.
You answered "No," but do these statements really disagree with what frumanchu said? I know that the doctrine of Limited Atonement means that Christ's sacrifice was effective only for the elect, but is this necessarily always at odd with the statement, "Salvation is available to every individual"?Jon_ said:God determines the availability of salvation. This is the doctrine of limited or particular atonement. Christ's sacrifice was effective only for the elect; therefore, salvation is only for the elect.
TSIBHOD said:You answered "No," but do these statements really disagree with what frumanchu said? I know that the doctrine of Limited Atonement means that Christ's sacrifice was effective only for the elect, but is this necessarily always at odd with the statement, "Salvation is available to every individual"?
Antman_05 said:The only problem with what your saying is that in the Greek the word all does mean all, mean everyone, or as Jesus put it "whosoever". So the most logical conclusion is just what i put up.
Antman_05 said:LOL, what the, for real. If all doesn't mean all as in everyone then what does all mean, most but not all.
Antman_05 said:LOL, what the, for real. If all doesn't mean all as in everyone then what does all mean, most but not all.