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narnia59

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Please.

There are plenty of verse that show Jesus was sinless. Lets face it, I proved a point.
What point? That having a baby is now a personal sin? Or that anyone who is found as "unclean" under the Levitical law is a sinner (which would include Christ)?

If the best "point" you can make is that childbirth constitutes personal sin, you're argument is in deep trouble.
 
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PilgrimToChrist

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Ritual uncleanliness is not the same as sin. For example, it makes someone unclean to touch a dead body, yet burying the dead is one of the corporal acts of mercy. However, it would be unfitting for someone to become impure by giving birth to very God who is wholly pure, ergo, Mary did not become unclean because of giving birth to Jesus (which is why she gave birth without pain or blood, retaining her hymen, and never menstruated). However, she still complied with the Mosaic Law and made the offering in the Temple because to not do so would have been a sin.
 
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Tangible

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(which is why she gave birth without pain or blood, retaining her hymen, and never menstruated)
Ew.

All this AKA "The tail wagging the dog." There isn't even a hint of these assertions in scripture.

(Poor Mary. I don't think she would feel very blessed having her personal bodily functions openly debated.)
 
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PilgrimToChrist

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Or that anyone who is found as "unclean" under the Levitical law is a sinner (which would include Christ)?

He was touched by the woman who had a perpetual menstruation (menorrhagia), touched lepers, touched dead people, ate with Samaritans, Gentiles and those in public sin. Certainly, if you take a strict application of the Mosaic Law, Christ was ritually unclean during a significant portion of His public ministry. If ritual uncleanliness constitutes sin*, we have a serious problem.


~~~
* Certain sectaries see "sin" as a state of uncleanliness rather than particular acts. They would also assert that every act of a man in a state of sin constitutes sin. Sometimes they refer to a "sin nature".
 
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PilgrimToChrist

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(Poor Mary. I don't think she would feel very blessed having her personal bodily functions openly debated.)

I didn't bring it up. But if menstruation is literally "the curse" -- part of the curse of "pain in childbearing" (Gen 3:16) -- as an effect of Original Sin, and the Blessed Virgin was without stain of Original Sin, logically she neither menstruated nor had pain during the birth of Christ.

If Mary was conceived in a state of Original Sin, she could not be the New Eve. If she is not the New Eve, she could not be the Mother of the Church, the spiritual "mother of all the living". Yet, Scripture asserts that she is indeed the Mother of the Church (Jn 19:26-27; Apoc 12:17). So therefore, she is the New Eve, was conceived without Original Sin and therefore suffered no menstruation nor pains of childbirth.
 
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Tangible

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Yet, Scripture asserts that she is indeed the Mother of the Church (Jn 19:26-27; Apoc 12:17). So therefore, she is the New Eve, was conceived without Original Sin and therefore suffered no menstruation nor pains of childbirth.

Jn 19: 26 When Jesus saw his mother and the disciple whom he loved standing nearby, he said to his mother, “Woman, behold, your son!” 27 Then he said to the disciple, “Behold, your mother!” And from that hour the disciple took her to his own home.

Narrative passage. John is not equal to the whole church. Context doesn't support your claim.

Rev 12: 17 Then the dragon became furious with the woman and went off to make war on the rest of her offspring, on those who keep the commandments of God and hold to the testimony of Jesus. And he stood on the sand of the sea.

Apocalyptic passage. The woman is Isreal/The Church, not Mary. Context doesn't support your claim.

More?

And that's a pretty huge leap under that "therefore".
 
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St_Worm2

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Hi PTC, first off, what's "Apoc 12:17" stand for?

Secondly, John 19:26-27, you believe these two verses teach us that Mary is the Mother of the Church? I see Jesus fulfilling His earthly duty to Mary (His earthly mother) in getting John to take care of her from that point on, but nothing more. These two verses are the only Scriptural backing the RCC has for the doctrine of Mary as Mother of the Church ..

One last question, why does the RCC believe Jesus addresses Mary as "woman" instead of "mother" here ..

Thanks!

Yours and His,
David
 
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St_Worm2

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We, of course, have no Scriptural evidence about the physical part of the birth itself, but I noticed on Tangible's post that by Apoc 12:17 you may have meant Revelation 12:17.

So the RCC sees the "woman" in Revelation 12 as "Mary"? But in Rev 12:2 we read of her: "She was with child; and she cried out, being in labor and in pain to give birth". Maybe she wasn't completely free from Original Sin after all ..

 
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PilgrimToChrist

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Hi PTC, first off, what's "Apoc 12:17" stand for?

The Apocalypse of St. John, sometimes called "Revelation" (the English translation of the Greek word "Apocalypse"):

Apoc 12:17 said:
And the dragon was angry against the woman: and went to make war with the rest of her seed, who keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.

The woman, Mary, gave birth physically to Christ and gives birth spiritually to those who follow Christ, the Church.

Mary is the Mother of Christ. The Church is the Mystical Body of Christ, ergo, Mary is mystically (spiritually) the Mother of the Church. Adam and Eve are the physical parents of the human race. Jesus and Mary are the spiritual parents of the human race. Mary's role in the redemption of mankind was part of putting everything back together -- Eve obeyed the fallen angel, but Mary obeyed the good angel; Eve took the fruit off the tree, Mary put the Fruit on the Tree. In order to be the New Eve, it necessitates that she was born in that same state of purity that Eve was.

Secondly, John 19:26-27, you believe these two verses teach us that Mary is the Mother of the Church? I see Jesus fulfilling His earthly duty to Mary (His earthly mother) in getting John to take care of her from that point on, but nothing more.

You really think that there are parts of the Gospel that are meaningless, especially something as dramatic as Christ's words on the Cross?

One last question, why does the RCC believe Jesus referred to Mary as "woman" instead of "mother" here ..

Both at the Wedding of Cana and at Calvary, Christ calls Mary "woman". This is the counterpart to calling Himself "the Son of Man". Christ is the New Adam, Mary is the New Eve. Using this representative title for Mary -- "woman" instead of "mother" -- affirms her in the role of the New Eve.


---


 
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Frogster

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Now..you know what I meant. If she was declared unclean under Lev law, then she was a sinner under law, because all sinned under law. You can't declare just "some of the law" over her. She lived under the full Mosaic law.
 
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Frogster

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I did not say that was a sin. But the point is, if she was declared unclean by the law, then that same system declared her a sinner, because only jesus kept the law perfectly.

Leviticus 12:1 The LORD spoke to Moses, saying, 2 “Speak to the people of Israel, saying, ‘If a woman conceives and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean seven days. As at the time of her menstruation, she shall be unclean.

She was either under law, or not. It says if she :bears a child".
 
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Frogster

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PilgrimToChrist

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I did not say that was a sin. But the point is, if she was declared unclean by the law, then that same system declared her a sinner, because only jesus kept the law perfectly.

Was Jesus ritually unclean? Was He therefore a sinner?
 
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Frogster

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Was Jesus ritually unclean? Was He therefore a sinner?

I addressed that, did u read my post? No, but the point is, she was under the law. You can't just pick some law, she lived under the full Mosaic law, and under that law, all were delacred sinners. Only Jesus was exempt.

So if she was unclean, declared by law, then she was a sinner, delcared by law.
 
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Frogster

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Ok friend. What would you like to talk about with 23? Why didn't Paul exempt her from 3:23?
 
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PilgrimToChrist

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So Jesus was not unclean because "the prince is above the law" (princeps legibus solutus est)?

You also have failed to show how ritual uncleanliness is the same as sin. Animals can be ritually unclean, does that mean animals are sinners? Indeed, even inanimate objects can be ritually unclean, does that mean these objects are sinners? Women are ritually unclean for menstruating, is menstruation a sin? Being a leper makes someone unclean, is it a sin to contract a disease? Touching a dead person makes someone ritually unclean, is burying people a sin?


So you believe that ritual uncleanliness is sin. Here we have a "holy thing", a sacrifice which is a "perpetual ordinance", that causes the priests who participate in the sacrifice to be unclean. So to you, God commands people to sin against Him as a way of worshiping Him.

Clearly, you have a different definition of "sin" than I do.

Here is a Jewish perspective on "ritual impurity" and its relationship to sin.



I also, for the record, do not grant that the Mother of God was ritually unclean because she gave birth to Christ -- Christ cleanses the world, He does not defile it. The woman who was bleeding touched the hem of His garment and was made clean, He touched the lepers and they were made clean, yet you think that Christ defiled His Holy Mother?
 
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