People who could read at all in the Middle Ages could read Latin: hence there was little need for the church to issue the Scriptures in any other language. But as a matter of fact she did in many countries put the Scriptures in the hands of her children in their own tongue. 1.) We know from history that there were popular translations of the Bible and Gospels in Spanish, Italian, Danish, French, Norweigan, Polish, Bohemian, and Hungarian for the Catholics of those lands before the days of printing, but I'll just confine this to England, so as to refute once more the common fallacy that John Wycliff was the first to place an English translation of the Scriptures in the hands of the English people in 1382.
To anyone that has investigated the real facts of the case, this fondly- cherished notion must seem truly ridiculous; it is not only absolutely false, but stupidly so, inasmuch as it admits of such easy disproof; one wonders that nowadays any lecturer or writer should have the temerity to advance it. Now, observe I am speaking of the days before the printing press was invented; I am speaking of England; and concerning a church which did not, and does not, admit the necessity of Bible-reading for salvation; and concerning an age when the production of the Scriptures was a most costly business, and far beyond the means of nearly everybody. Yet we may safely assert, and we can prove, that there were actually in existence among the people many copies of the Scriptures in english tongue of that day.
To begin far back, we have a copy of the work of Caedmon, a monk of Whitby, in the end of the seventh century, consisting of great portions of the Bible in the common tongue. In the next century we have the well known translations of Venerable Bede, a monk of Jarrow, who died while busy with the Gospel of St. John. In the same (eighth) century we have the copies of Eadhelm, Bishop of Sherborne; of Guthlac a hermit near Peterborough. And so on..these were all in Saxon, the language spoken and understood by the Christians of that time. Then we have King Alfred the Great who was working at the Psalms when he died. Then the book of Durham, and the Rushworth Gloss and others who have survived the wreck of ages. We have proof of this in words of Blessed Thomas More, Lord Chancellor of England under Henry VIII who says "The whole Bible long before Wycliff's day was by virtuous and well-learned men translated into the English tongue, and by good, or such as be already reproved for naught (which means naughty, bad) as Wycliff's was. For, as for old ones that were before Wycliff's days, they remain lawful and be in some folk's hand. I myself have seen, and can show you Bibles, fair and old which have been known and seen by the Bishop of the Diocese, and left in layman's hands and women's too, such as he knew for good and Catholic folk, that used them with soberness and devotion".
I ask you this: If Wycliff was the first to publish the Bible in English, how in the name of reason can it be true at the same time that Luther, more than 100 years afterwards, discovered it??? Really, people must decide which story they are going to tell, for the one is the direct contradictory of the other. Wycliff or Luther, let it be; but Wycliff and Luther together? That is impossible.
To anyone that has investigated the real facts of the case, this fondly- cherished notion must seem truly ridiculous; it is not only absolutely false, but stupidly so, inasmuch as it admits of such easy disproof; one wonders that nowadays any lecturer or writer should have the temerity to advance it. Now, observe I am speaking of the days before the printing press was invented; I am speaking of England; and concerning a church which did not, and does not, admit the necessity of Bible-reading for salvation; and concerning an age when the production of the Scriptures was a most costly business, and far beyond the means of nearly everybody. Yet we may safely assert, and we can prove, that there were actually in existence among the people many copies of the Scriptures in english tongue of that day.
To begin far back, we have a copy of the work of Caedmon, a monk of Whitby, in the end of the seventh century, consisting of great portions of the Bible in the common tongue. In the next century we have the well known translations of Venerable Bede, a monk of Jarrow, who died while busy with the Gospel of St. John. In the same (eighth) century we have the copies of Eadhelm, Bishop of Sherborne; of Guthlac a hermit near Peterborough. And so on..these were all in Saxon, the language spoken and understood by the Christians of that time. Then we have King Alfred the Great who was working at the Psalms when he died. Then the book of Durham, and the Rushworth Gloss and others who have survived the wreck of ages. We have proof of this in words of Blessed Thomas More, Lord Chancellor of England under Henry VIII who says "The whole Bible long before Wycliff's day was by virtuous and well-learned men translated into the English tongue, and by good, or such as be already reproved for naught (which means naughty, bad) as Wycliff's was. For, as for old ones that were before Wycliff's days, they remain lawful and be in some folk's hand. I myself have seen, and can show you Bibles, fair and old which have been known and seen by the Bishop of the Diocese, and left in layman's hands and women's too, such as he knew for good and Catholic folk, that used them with soberness and devotion".
I ask you this: If Wycliff was the first to publish the Bible in English, how in the name of reason can it be true at the same time that Luther, more than 100 years afterwards, discovered it??? Really, people must decide which story they are going to tell, for the one is the direct contradictory of the other. Wycliff or Luther, let it be; but Wycliff and Luther together? That is impossible.