You said:
"There are over 500 references of G444 that all speak in the plural, not singualr as you have said. If this is true, then does not the verse from Mark 2:27 include all mankind?"
(Is that your final answer?) PROVE IT, (that's sooo false)
The very first point made by all dictionaries is that "man" is singular; meaning "
a (1) human being".
In my previous post I added
"not gender specific" to say that man does not always mean a male in it's bible usage. (an obvious point)
ECR, Both you and K4c exposed yourselves. Ricker must be stunned as I am, by both your ignorance or manipulation of the definiton of the word "man".
G444 ἄνθρωπος - Strong's Greek Lexicon Number
ἄνθρωποςmanfacedἄνθρωπος from
G3700); man-faced, i.e. a human being
Derivation: from
G435 and ὤψ (the countenance;
KJV Usage: certain, man.
G435 G3700
Thayer:
1)
a human being, whether male or female:
.....1a) generically, to include all human individuals
.....1b) to distinguish man from beings of a different order:
............1b1) of animals and plants
............1b2) of from God and Christ
............1b3) of the angels
.....1c) with the added notion of weakness, by which man is led
..........into a mistake or prompted to sin
.....1d) with the adjunct notion of contempt or disdainful pity
.....1e) with reference to two fold nature of man, body and soul
.....1f) with reference to the two fold nature of man, the corrupt and
..........the truly Christian man, conformed to the nature of God
.....1g) with reference to sex, a male
2) indefinitely,
someone, a man, one
3) in the plural, people
4) joined with other words, merchantman
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When your point is false, the attachments cannot stand alone ECR.
K4c
also needs a lesson on how to use a dictionary because he said;
"It can also refer to animals." (we can expect him to divert rather than retract false statements) This is trully embarassing.
The dictionary is saying that "man" is distinguished from animals....
