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Eye opening truthFirst of all why do you call the clean/unclean laws a health message? Does the Bible mention health? God used all kinds of laws and signs to separate Israel from the other nations, many of them SDA's don't follow any more, either.
The word "man" can and does indeed sometimes mean "man specific", and not all mankind. Jesus was speaking with a Jewish audience, and are not Jews men?. Of all the Bible translations I checked, none of them said "mankind".
Eye opening truth
It seems to me, like many people I hear on these forums, God is sending strong delusion so that you should believe a lie.
There is a way about sinful man that has the ablility to reason away truth that has been plainly presented by God. When this is done, God sends strong delusion so that you will believe what you are saying.
Are you kidding...
The wages of sin is death...
Sin is a faithful boss who pays on time.
If you don't care for your body you will be paid.
If you violate the priciples of holiness defined in God's Law, you will be paid but it won't be by God, it will be by your true master, sin.
The consequences of sin is built into creation itself.
God told Adam that if he ate of the tree he would die. He didn't say' "If you eat of the tree I will kill you".
Eating of the tree of the knowlegde of good and evil is symbolic for man determining what is good or evil, as opposed to what God says, through the conscience.
No, I'm not kidding but, do you ever listen to yourself?Are you kidding...
The wages of sin is death...
Sin is a faithful boss who pays on time.
If you don't care for your body you will be paid.
If you violate the priciples of holiness defined in God's Law, you will be paid but it won't be by God, it will e by your true master, sin.
The consequences of sin is built into creation itself.
God told Adam that if he ate of the tree he would die. He doesn't say' "if you eat of the tree I will kill you".
Eating of the tree of the knowlegde of good and evil is symbolic for man determining what is good or evil, as opposed to what God says, through the conscience.
Call me deluded if you want, but in the context of Jesus speaking with a bunch of Jews, "man" could easily not mean "mankind, especially with all the other witness of Scripture showing it was exclusively for Israel.
When the Bible speaks of somethng being for all mankind it is clear. For example:
Matt 28: 19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
Acts 2: 'In the last days, God says, I will pour out my Spirit on all people. Your sons and daughters will prophesy, your young men will see visions,
Titus 2 11 For the grace of God has appeared that offers salvation to all people.
Since you are speaking of strong delusions, let's see what the Bible says:
14 But their minds were made dull, for to this day the same veil remains when the old covenant is read. It has not been removed, because only in Christ is it taken away. 15 Even to this day when Moses is read, a veil covers their hearts. 16 But whenever anyone turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.
God bless!
Call me deluded if you want, but in the context of Jesus speaking with a bunch of Jews, "man" could easily not mean "mankind, especially with all the other witness of Scripture showing it was exclusively for Israel.
When the Bible speaks of somethng being for all mankind it is clear. For example:
Matt 28: 19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
Acts 2: 'In the last days, God says, I will pour out my Spirit on all people. Your sons and daughters will prophesy, your young men will see visions,
Titus 2 11 For the grace of God has appeared that offers salvation to all people.
ECR, If you're going to argue what a word means, at least do some homework and make sure it's being used in your example.Couldn't the term 'all people' mean all the Jews? Just sayin'...
If the word 'man' refers to Jews only then I guess salvation is only for them.
Rom 10:10
For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
I'm just like you, a big mouth. May God help us with more wisdom.....The carnal mind is dead and won't obey the Law. But the one who is born of the Spirit and walks according to the Spirit, will.
I think the best thing you can do is seek God for His enlightenment and allow the Bible to speak for itself without you forcing it to say what you don't want it to say. While you're doing this it would be better for you to stay off these forums so you can hear from God.
The context in which "man" is used in Mark 2:27, is relative to the"singular vernacular" of the complete statement made by Jesus:
My concordance says that 'anthropos' means human being...
ἄνθρωπος from G3700); man-faced, i.e. a human being
Derivation: from G435 and ὤψ (the countenance)
My bad for the previous scripture quote, Biblegateway doesn't highlight supplied words... here's another for you to consider.
Matt 4:4
But1161 he answered611 and said2036 , It is written1125 , Man444 shall21980 not3756 live2198 by1909 bread740 alone3441, but235 by1909 every3956 word4487 that proceedeth1607 out of1223 the mouth4750 of God2316.
There are over 500 references of G444 that all speak in the plural, not singualr as you have said. If this is true, then does not the verse from Mark 2:27 include all mankind?
Where exactly did you get this information? I once read that the greek word used here could mean a certain group of men or people as well as mankind.
In the context of Jesus talking to Jews about Jewish law the term could well mean Jewish people.
I can't find any translation of the Bible that says "mankind" for Mark 2:27. If that is what the greek word means, there has been a whole lot of mistranslations.
Jesus wasn't just teaching the Jews, He was also laying the foundation for His church. It's the duality of scripture, immediate application and future application.
Again I ask...
There are over 500 references of G444 that all speak in the plural, not singualr as you have said. If this is true, then does not the verse from Mark 2:27 include all mankind?
I ask you again, where do you get this information?
G444 ἄνθρωπος - Strong's Greek Lexicon Number
ἄνθρωποςmanfacedἄνθρωπος from G3700); man-faced, i.e. a human being
Derivation: from G435 and ὤψ (the countenance;
KJV Usage: certain, man. G435 G3700
Thayer: 1) a human being, whether male or female
1a) generically, to include all human individuals
1b) to distinguish man from beings of a different order
1b1) of animals and plants
1b2) of from God and Christ
1b3) of the angels
1c) with the added notion of weakness, by which man is led into a mistake or prompted to sin
1d) with the adjunct notion of contempt or disdainful pity
1e) with reference to two fold nature of man, body and soul
1f) with reference to the two fold nature of man, the corrupt and the truly Christian man, conformed to the nature of God
1g) with reference to sex, a male
2) indefinitely, someone, a man, one
3) in the plural, people
4) joined with other words, merchantman
#2 allows the verse could be about someone other than mankind.
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