... and this is an ill-founded assumption, for every time the couple is mentioned, Priska is named first, which indicates she was the leading part of them. She did at least 50% of the teaching, this is was Luke (in agreemenmt with Paul) indicates between the lines.
Thats the circle that must be broken to fit into a pattern of living stones being built up together into the NJ that is cubic.Yes, I agree.
But folk here have still said to me, "there is no evidence that Priscilla taught, and women are not allowed to teach."
Either that, or they say "well it's o.k if Priscilla taught because her husband was with her and she was under his authority". Yet when I say, "oh, does that mean that women can preach or be ordained if they preach, or are ordained, alongside their husbands?" they are strangely quiet on the subject.
No, they are deaconesses. The word you are referring to simply means a servant and can, therefore, refer to either position. They have very different functions in the church. Deaconesses, for one thing, are laypersons unlike Deacons who are ordained, can administer the sacraments, read the Gospel in worship services, and so on.
Then they--WHO CONSTITUTE A SMALL MINORITY OF THE CHRISTIANS WHO OPPOSE WOMEN'S ORDINATION--are wrong, but the historic churches and their people who make their decision for a male clergy on a different basis are not.Yes, I agree.
But folk here have still said to me, "there is no evidence that Priscilla taught, and women are not allowed to teach."
Either that, or they say "well it's o.k if Priscilla taught because her husband was with her and she was under his authority". Yet when I say, "oh, does that mean that women can preach or be ordained if they preach, or are ordained, alongside their husbands?" they are strangely quiet on the subject.
I believe that's what I said. So it means that the word itself does not answer the question as to women in the diaconate.It seems from my Greek dictionary that the word for Deacon can also be translated "servant", or "minister".
That's a word we use now, it's true, but the meaning applies to the early church and to the church until very recent times.There is no account of anyone, in those days, being ordained.
That's not true. You may be thinking of the agape meal, a common meal, which accompanied the liturgy in the early church but was not a substitute for it.The believers broke bread together; they didn't need an ordained person to do it.
Therefore, I do not understand why you said the German deconesses should teach me something "about the nature of and reality of deaconesses" ...The office of deaconess dates back to the earliest days of the Christian church, to what is called "the ancient church" when the Roman Empire still existed.
In Mk 10:45; Acts 6:2; 2.Cor 3:6 the verb "serve" is used, in Acts 6:4; 2.Cor 5:18 the word "service", which are related to servant, but not identical. "Servant is used in Ro 16:1.And my Greek interlinear NT says is the word used of Jesus when he said that he came to serve, Mark 10:45, of the Apostles in Acts 6 when they said they were not called to serve at tables, Acts of the Apostles 6:2, of Paul and others who were ministers of a New Covenant, 2 Corinthians 3:6, and given the ministry of reconciliation 2 Corinthians 5:18 - and of Phoebe, Romans 16:1; deacon of the church in Cenchrea.
There is no account of anyone, in those days, being ordained. The believers broke bread together; they didn't need an ordained person to do it.
I didn't say anything like that.Therefore, I do not understand why you said the German deconesses should teach me something "about the nature of and reality of deaconesses" …
Roughly speaking, that would be the church until about the fall of Rome or about AD 500. If you want to speak of the first century church in particular, the term Apostolic Church could be used.What I do not know: How old is "ancient church"?
Look, the church calls them deaconesses in order not to be confusing. But we know that in the early church, probably as early as the first century, women who were laywomen, not called to be what we refer to as clergy or ministers, were chosen for special purposes applying to women and children in the church--teaching, preparing females for baptism (which was then done in the nude), and so on. .Certainly not as old as the NT books, for there deaconesses are not mentioned, the word "deaconess" is absent from the nT, only deacons are mentioned (and all persons known to be deacons are female).
I wrote about the German deaconesses, and you wrote in post #170:I didn't say anything like that.
How else can I interpret this than as a statement the 19-th century deaconesses should tell me about the nature of and reality of deaconesses?So, doesn't this tell you about the nature of and reality of deaconesses?
It is a guess that the situation (in this respect) in the 1st century was the same as in the 2nd century. We know that notable changes happened around 100, so we cannot just extrapolate 2nd century uses into the 1st century.Look, the church calls them deaconesses in order not to be confusing. But we know that in the early church, probably as early as the first century, women who were laywomen, not called to be what we refer to as clergy or ministers, were chosen for special purposes applying to women and children in the church--teaching, preparing females for baptism (which was then done in the nude), and so on. .
... and female ones, like Phoebe.Meanwhile, the church also had male deacons
Again, this sounds like 2nd century, not like NT times.who were the advisors of the bishops, performed part of the worship service up to the preparation of the communion bread (which was the role of the presbyters/priests), read the Gospel to the congregation, and when needed, performed weddings and funeral services (among other such duties).
Of course not, Phoebe was most likely not the same type of diakonos as Stephen. But she is called diakonos, not diakone (deaconess).It is ridiculous to insist, as some people do, that if the word diakonos appears in the text, it must mean that every servant of the church is identical to every other servant of the church in every way.
Yes, yes, this has all been explained already. The word is a general term, like "army." In no way does it mean that everyone covered by the term is identical in every way to every other one.Of course not, Phoebe was most likely not the same type of diakonos as Stephen. But she is called diakonos, not diakone (deaconess).
We know from history, that there were changes, some of them connected to diminishing the role of women in the church. So we should be cautious not to read 2nd century or later evidence into the NT.So it is that we know from history as well as Scripture that males who were "servants" (the root meaning of the word deacon) had certain functions while women whom we customarily distinguish by calling them deaconesses did quite different ones and were not considered ordained as the males were.
It looks like you are intent upon reading 20th century social norms into first century history and scripture, however.We know from history, that there were changes, some of them connected to diminishing the role of women in the church. So we should be cautious not to read 2nd century or later evidence into the NT.
You cannot deny that there were female Apostles in the NT, Rom 16:7. From somewhat later times, there is evidence from female presbyteroi (yes, even there often the male form was used to describe the office of a female holder). And the most natural reading of 1.Tim 3:11 says that there were female deacons (same office as 1.Tim 3:8-10).It looks like you are intent upon reading 20th century social norms into first century history and scripture, however.
There is abundant literary and inscriptional evidence of female deacons. Their title is "deacon" or "deaconess," seemingly interchangeably. The early third-century Syrian Didascalia Apostolorum compares the bishop to God, the male deacon to Christ, and the female deacon to the Holy Spirit. The presbyters are likened only to the apostles; their role is still not clear
From these years come several conciliar and episcopal condemnations of women presbyters (for example, Council of Nîmes, In ministerium leviticum, canon 2; the Council of Laodicea, presbytides, canon 11; Letter 14 of Pope Gelasius, ministrare sacris altaribus; Fulgentius of Carthage, presbyterae). It is highly unlikely that so many condemnations would appear about a nonexistent practice.
Sure. Carried a letter.Phoebe carried a "letter of recommendation", which Paul expanded to a lengthy letter since there were quite a lot issues he wanted to tell the Romans.
No, it doesn't . It suggests that she was a respected messenger doing an important task, having been appointed to it by someone in authority.The way she is introduced suggests she was ordained.
First, "ordained" is our word; called or something else like that would be more in keeping with the Scriptural language. But the NT gives us the qualifications for being made a deacon...and/or a bishop. A number of men (but no women) are identified as holding positions and doing the work of what we call clergy. The history as well as the scripture answers the question.If she wasn't, what evidence do we have to call other deacons in NT as "ordained"?
As "deacon" is derived from the word "servant" which is not gender specific, so also with "apostle," meaning a representative. But when we use it, we customarily are using it to refer to The Twelve whom Christ called to be the leaders of his church. In their case, the word is normally capitalized (Apostle). If we find it uncapitalized, as in the case you refer to, it is being used in the non-specific way to indicate a messenger or perhaps a convenor of a church group, neither of which necessarily refers to a pastor, etc.There were female apostles in NT times, and you say there were no female deacons? Hard to believe.
You lost me. How on earth a person can be set up as leading in a church without being ordained?It is certainly true that women played important roles in the new church. If being in positions of "leadership" is the issue, women should be there. In most churches today in which the clergy are males, women still serve on boards of control, act as readers or communion servers...just about anything BUT as ordained ministers.
No, "called" refers to God who calls a person to a service, while "ordained" refers to an act of men: Appoint someone to a service (which should, of course, be done in accordance to the will of God), see Acts 14:23, where leaders, i.e. presbuteroi, were appointed. And from other verses in the Bible we know that such an appointment was accompanied with prayers and laying hands on them.First, "ordained" is our word; called or something else like that would be more in keeping with the Scriptural language.
No women?But the NT gives us the qualifications for being made a deacon...and/or a bishop. A number of men (but no women) are identified as holding positions and doing the work of what we call clergy. The history as well as the scripture answers the question.
We also use it for Paul, and Junia & her husband are Apostles like him. The have the service Paul speaks about in his lists of services: apostles, prophets, teachers etc.As "deacon" is derived from the word "servant" which is not gender specific, so also with "apostle," meaning a representative. But when we use it, we customarily are using it to refer to The Twelve whom Christ called to be the leaders of his church.
Since ancient Greek had no difference of capital vs. minuscule (these were just the old and the later style of letters, the change between them was in the 8th century), so your capitalization is an interpretation of editors, nothing you can use as argument.In their case, the word is normally capitalized (Apostle). If we find it uncapitalized
You are dealing only with a fairly narrow set of Christians who think women should be submissive, silent, or something of the sort. But if we reject that thinking, it STILL doesn't mean that Scripture or the history of the first Christian churches allows for women pastors, what we call today "women's ordination."Either that, or they say "well it's o.k if Priscilla taught because her husband was with her and she was under his authority". Yet when I say, "oh, does that mean that women can preach or be ordained if they preach, or are ordained, alongside their husbands?" they are strangely quiet on the subject.
head of or member of the church's governing board, Sunday School superintendent, lay minister, and so on. These are examples of positions in the church which clearly count as leadership but not as the pastor, etc.You lost me. How on earth a person can be set up as leading in a church without being ordained?
Ordained is just the act. But when we say "called" we do not mean that the person wanting to be a pastor simply has to show up and claim that they felt a call from God. The church has to issue the call. That is evident in Scripture. It's a function of the "priesthood of all believers" that people refer to often. It doesn't mean that every one of us is a pastor/minister/priest, but that the authority resides in the congregation or classis, etc. which then delegates it to the individual.No, "called" refers to God who calls a person to a service, while "ordained" refers to an act of men
You are dealing only with a fairly narrow set of Christians who think women should be submissive, silent, or something of the sort. But if we reject that thinking, it STILL doesn't mean that Scripture or the history of the first Christian churches allows for women pastors, what we call today "women's ordination."
A much larger group of Christian churches rejects the "women in submission" line of thought, and does have women in various positions of leadership in the church, but does not ordain women to pastoral positions.