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If G-d gave us crystal meth, it is safe to assume that he wanted us to use it, right?
Actually, he's fulfilled about a third of the 300 prophecies, and not all of them are that impressive: the Immanuel prophecy, for instance, was 'fulfilled' insofar as Matthew mention in passing that Jesus was Immanuel. Is that a truly fulfilled prophecy, or was it self-fulfilling (i.e., he was called that, or Matthew wrote it, because he was so prophesied)?
Or, it reads exactly as if it were fictional.
I agree, though perhaps not with the last part
From YahooAnswers:Give me an example of the 300 which weren't fulfilled.
Can you give an example of 10 main prophecies, and show that they were in fact fulfilled?Its pretty easy to find a web site giving all 300 propheices and where in the Bible they are fulfilled. Yes not all 300 are amazing, but just 10 mains onces would enough to make you say, there might be something to this.
The difference between quantum mechanics and religion is that the former is based on the evidence and predicts experimentally falsifiable results. Why do you believe in 'by faith'? Faith is belief without reason, yet quantum theory is one of the most well-evidenced theories ever produced by science.Quantum science is even more weird then many religions and people (myself included) still believe it by faith.
Hah, indeed.Yh the last part may have been over the top, but its easy to get annoyed with someone who talks about what you believe as if they even half know you.
Can you give an example where something isn't identical to itself? I like to define the 'equals' symbol as 'if I replace the thing on the right with the thing on the left in some other statement, said statement doesn't change'. In the case where A is on both the left and the right, this still holds true. Thus, A = A.First of all: Non-contradiction does not state something about being in the first place, but about propositions. It states that no proposition is both, true and false. Formally in statement logic ¬(A & ¬A) is a logical truth and A & ¬A a logical falsity. The main problem of your argument is, that is presupposes too much and thereby remains mysterious and unprecise; such things as identity for example - identity is a predicate that we have to define first and we already get to predicate logic then doing that. Since you introduced the identity sign without defining it, I do not see the point in your derivation without a definition of that sign. I believe of course that you presuppose a notion of identity that is intuitionistically invalid.
That is not my definition of '='.Namely that x is either identical or nonidentical to y, which already presupposes the law of the excluded middle.
I disagree: something with infinitely many properties is not necessarily identical to something else with infinitely many properties. A could have infinite properties which take numerical values between 0 and 1 , and likewise B's properties lie between 2 and 3. Though they both have infinite properties, they are not identical: their properties are all different. A is distinguishable from B. Replacing A with B yields different results.Yet, intuitionistically speaking, it is not the case that if a thing is not non-identical with itself then it is also identical with itself. The identity of things with infinitley many properties is not established just from the fact that they are not different from anything else. They are neither identical nor non-identical with themselves. And by such terms, your argument does not hold.
I would accept the facts, if I thought of them as such. I'm a scientist; I don't care what I believe, so long as it's right.I think you should begin to acknowledge the facts. There are modes of thought very different from what you estimate to be "making sense" that do work.
How so?The problem here is, that you have to cut out your own intuition of the difference between epistemplogy (knowledge) and onotlogy (being).
Not necessarily. The mathematician may be presented with an analytically solvable equation: a solution exists, but the mathematician does not yet know what it is.Intuitionism does claim that for the domain of mathematical entities there is no difference between that which is known and that which is.
I am not stating intuitions, I am stating definitions.This is simply a consequence of the assumtions made by the intuitionist mathematician. To deny the credibility of your opponent by dogmatically restating your own intuitions which rest on other modes of rationality is not a profitable strategy when it comes to mutual understanding.
Then submit your solutions to the Millenium Problems and claim your US$6,000,000.The very first step is: Give up the distinction between fact and knowledge. There are no unknown facts in intuitionist mathematics.
Indeterminable is different to superposition. Just because we don't know what something is, doesn't mean it doesn't have a set value.You simply have to see: An intuitionist does not have any use for the classical reasoning with the identity predicate. It does not have to do anything with an extension or replacement. Since there are undecidable properties, identity may be undecidable, too.
Indeed. Fortunately, I'm not taking it. It is nonsensical by its own meritsJust because you don't get it, doesn't mean it is nonsensical. That is a pretty arrogant stance to take up here.
Sure. Except, he didn't: we have to make it ourselves>If G-d gave us logic, it is safe to assume that he wanted us to use it, right?
If G-d gave us crystal meth, it is safe to assume that he wanted us to use it, right?
I am not stating intuitions, I am stating definitions.
I would accept the facts, if I thought of them as such. I'm a scientist; I don't care what I believe, so long as it's right.
And a brusque attitude isn't exactly helping.
Indeterminable is different to superposition. Just because we don't know what something is, doesn't mean it doesn't have a set value.
Not necessarily. The mathematician may be presented with an analytically solvable equation: a solution exists, but the mathematician does not yet know what it is.
>If G-d gave us logic, it is safe to assume that he wanted us to use it, right?
If G-d gave us crystal meth, it is safe to assume that he wanted us to use it, right?
I agree it is poorly reasoned to choose a religion based soley what others (assuming here you mean normal, ordinary humans) can tell us. But who said this is why we choose Christianity. I would take a look at calvinism if i were you.So G-d wants us to use the logic he gave us, but isn't it in fact illogical to choose any one religion (relating back to my first point that Christianity asserts itself to be the only correct religion) based only on what others can tell us? Faith is illogical, but G-d wants us to use logic. Paradox!
Christianity isnt illogical. Christianity is testimony.
Also thats its illogical to disbelieve the testimony of so many people, as limited creatures in intellectual capacity its impossible for us to find the truth on our own.
Now we rely on the testimony of others to such an extent to where school is based around our capacity to remember those tesimonies
to challenge everything that has ever been concluded and agreed upon by others, Christianity inculded, is not only illogical but down right stupid.
I understand that logic and faith are not always mutually exclusive, if that's what you're asking.
I could tell you that.
I realize that nobody just made up the whole Bible, (which is why I said in my earlier post that I respect its historical significance) but just because we know that Jesus existed and had whatever legacy does not allow us to jump to the conclusion that he is the son of G-d.
People should accept that homosexuality is not a choice for similar reasons.
Old news.
And yet we still have Jews. Whether Jesus was the Messiah that the Old Testament spoke of is very debatable.
Eh wha?
Lots of people denied Jesus, they just didn't write a book about it that lasted 2000 years.
Are you actually trying to tell me that an apostle was unbiased in writing the Bible?
Where can you discern that?
Clearly
Yes, you believe it because your parents and priests tell you to, which is sort of my point.
But it never says he created us above all other creatures just "because we have logic". Sure, our level of reasoning is a part of human superiority, but the primary thing he gave us is not only reason, but just as much our body and soul, our whole being. A part of that being, is the nous, which has been described as the eye of the soul, the receiving intellect, the ability we have unlike any other creature, to receive God, to feel Gods presence, to commune with God. Remember, reason is what enables us to understand our experience; and in our experience, we see God reveal himself, but this revelation when it is understood, is what means that we can commune with God and be in his presence in our nous.** In Genesis it plainly states that G-d created us above all the other creatures.