If I simply come out and
say, "your understanding of that verse is wrong," I don't think you'd hear me or even consider what I aim in saying. For that reason, therefore, I plan to first show you scripture that will clearly contradict your understanding of 2 Peter 3:9, and then I will give what I believe to be the correct interpretation of the aforementioned scripture. My aim here is simply to have you consider my answer from an unbiased opinion. If I succeed in my aim - and I pray I do - you will continue to read on and perhaps change your mind. Here's the scripture I want to present to you:
"Then he began to denounce the cities where most of his mighty works had been done, because they did not repent. "Woe to you, Chorazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! For if the mighty works done in you had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I tell you, it will be more bearable on the day of judgment for Tyre and Sidon than for you. And you, Capernaum, will you be exalted to heaven? You will be brought down to Hades. For if the mighty works done in you had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day. But I tell you that it will be more tolerable on the day of judgment for the land of Sodom than for you." At that time Jesus declared, "I thank you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that you have hidden these things from the wise and understanding and revealed them to little children; yes, Father, for such was your gracious will. All things have been handed over to me by my Father, and no one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal him" (Matthew 11:20-27)."
Let's now pick it all apart and make sense of it all. Here's what we seeing going on:
1. Jesus was doing some miracles in certain cities.
2. The people of those cities did not repent, so Jesus pronounces woes on them.
3. Jesus mentions that
if cities like Sodom had the miracles they did, those cites - .e.g, Sodom and so on,
would have repented.
4. There was no sign given those cities (Sodom and so on), and therefore they did not repent.
5. Jesus says that the Father had
hid some things from some, and only revealed it to others.
6. Jesus calls this sovereign act of hiding truth from some and revealing it to others,
gracious.
7. Jesus said that no one could no God unless God reveals himself to him (verse 27).
Consider with me the implications of point #3 and point #5. Since you believe that "God wills it for EVERYONE be saved," as your understanding of 2 Peter 3:9 suggest, why do you think that God kept miracles from Sodom; especially considering that they "would have repented," as Jesus said? Furthermore, if God wills for everyone to be saved, as you understand it, why hid truth from some? I hope that this scripture and my questions would cause you to now at least consider my interpretation of 2 Peter 3:9. My understanding is as follows:
"The Lord is not slow to fulfill his promise as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance." - 2 Peter 3:9
Notice the word "you" in bold type. Who is that referring to? Consider the context, and you'll see that the
you is the
beloved in verse 8. Who then is the beloved? Notice verse 1 of that chapter and you will find that this is now "the 2nd letter addressed to the beloved." This means that the answer to the question, "who then is the beloved?" and who is the "you" in verse 9?" will be found in the first letter. Now, consider Peter's first letter and to whom it is addressed. Here you will find the words..."
to those who are elect exiles" (1 Peter 1:1). Still, you may say that this was interesting, but still not enough to prove that 2 Peter 3:9 isn't talking about all people without exception. Here then it may be wise to consider the scripture in its original language. This, I believe, should be the clincher. Consider again the scripture:
"The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as
some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that
any should perish, but that
all should come to repentance."
Consider with me the highlighted words. First the word some men. In the Greek, this word is translated tis, and it means "certain ones." Now consider the word any. Surprisingly enough, this word is also translated to mean "certain ones" or tis in the Greek. Therefore, the scriptures may just as easily and accurately have been translated as followed:
"The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as certian ones (some men aka "tis") count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that certian ones (any aka "tis") should perish..."
Finally, consider the word all. Here you may maintian that "all means all, and nothing other than everyone indivisually." Let us again consider the word in its orignal language to get a better understanding of what it means. The word "all" is translated pas in the Greek, and it means the following:
1. Indivisually - everyone, all, the whole.
2. Collectively - some of all types.
Considering all that I've said; especially the context and language translation, could you rightly hold that the "all" in the scripture is "everyone indiviusally?" No, I do not bleieve this to be so. Rather - and again looking at the context, both in the orignal Greek and translated English, it is clear (I believe), to see that the "all" here is speaking in the collective sense, and is making mention to "some of all types of people," namely God's elect (to whom the letter is written to in the first place).
Does this make sense?
