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Going to the opposite extreme from Kepha's position?
I'll answer your question with a question. If you had the slightest feeling that Jesus was having his feelings hurt out of a love for his creation, would you do same?![]()
I don't see how that answers my question. You asked how one could explain that link you gave us. I replied, in effect, "Wouldn't it be a proposition at the opposite end of the extremes from Kepha's?"
Although I put it to you as a question, it might as well have been a statement. Kepha takes the one extreme, i.e. the Ultramontane position, whereas your link considers everything wrong with it to be pagan or pagan-inspired--the extreme at the opposite end.
I'd say that the reality lies somewhere in between the two.
First you spin to marginalize...kepha31Rome is merely a city in Italy.
Then you spin to maximize as if co-incidence, not God, is in control.It so happens that Rome was the capital of the known world at the time.
Men chose Rome. God chose Jerusalem, & to Jerusalem He will return it from Rome.That is why God chose to use Rome as the center of authority for the Church on earth.
All of that is human logic serving human ambition, contrary to scripture & God's purpose.Jesus died for the whole world. There is a certain symbolism there. If Peter were to establish his 'diocese' in Paris, we would be called Parisian Catholics. If Peter were to establish this same authoritive church in Joppa, we would be called Joppian Catholics.
Not a single one of which are in scripture.Pope Clement riegned as Pope as is clearly indicated by several writings.
No, because he did not posess worldly ambition & did not care for the deeds of the nicolaitanes who wished to marry ecclesiatical & civil authority before the 2nd coming.The Apostle John was still alive at the time. Why wasn't the Apostle John the Pope? Because he wasn't the bishop of Rome.
No, it is merely the effort to reform ancient error by exposing the Babylonian Mystery Religion that seeks to aquire the authority of God for itself, as so clearly evidenced by the use of mystery religion symbols & titles.Attacking the Primacy of Peter and Apostolic succession demands re-writing historical facts to fit a theology born out of 16th century Nominalism, and severing the connection between the Incarnation and an earthly Church, severing the mystical body comprised of heaven and earth. It is a form of gnosticism.
This chapter isn't about Rome or the Vatican in any way except by extreme extrapolation, the only method ever used to justify nicolaitane misdeeds.kepha31;Isa. 22:19 - Shebna is described as having an "office" and a "station." An office, in order for it to be an office, has successors. In order for an earthly kingdom to last, a succession of representatives is required.
Isa. 22:21 - Eliakim is called father or papa of God's people.
Rev. 1:18; 3:7; 9:1; 20:1 - Jesus' "keys" undeniably represent authority. By using the word "keys," Jesus gives Peter authority on earth over the new Davidic kingdom, and this was not seriously questioned by anyone until the Protestant reformation 1,500 years later after Peters investiture.
The truths of the gospel are the keys to the kingdom.Revelation 3:7 RSV
7: "And to the angel of the church in Philadelphia write: `The words of the holy one, the true one, who has the key of David, who opens and no one shall shut, who shuts and no one opens.
Matthew 16:19 I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven."
There is. It is found in 1 Peter 5:13. Any Jew or serious bible student knows that "Babylon" meant the pagan capital of the Roman empire: ROME. There are also very loud "hints" of this city in Revelation 14:8, 16:19, 17:5, 18:2,10,21, which show that "Babylon" meant Rome. And this argument is irrelevant to the fact that Jesus instituted the Papacy.If that were so, I am sure there would have been at least a HINT of it in scripture.
Not a one of them identifies him as anything more than the bishop of Rome.
Because the idea of a Pope was unknown at that time. It only developed centuries later.
No, because he did not posess worldly ambition & did not care for the deeds of the nicolaitanes who wished to marry ecclesiatical & civil authority before the 2nd coming.
No, it is merely the effort to reform ancient error by exposing the Babylonian Mystery Religion that seeks to aquire the authority of God for itself, as so clearly evidenced by the use of mystery religion symbols & titles.
There is. It is found in 1 Peter 5:13. Any Jew or serious bible student knows that "Babylon" meant the pagan capital of the Roman empire: ROME. There are also very loud "hints" of this city in Revelation 14:8, 16:19, 17:5, 18:2,10,21, which show that "Babylon" meant Rome.
Pope Clement riegned as Pope as is clearly indicated by several writings.
Because the bishop of Rome is a bishop of that area, the same as any other bishop. The difference is that at the same time, there is universal jurisdiction for the whole church for whoever holds that one particular office. This is very confusing for Protestants when it doesn't need to be.
The TERM Pope developed, the reality of Peter's Primacy and for his successors is a fact, verified in scripture and in history, which you are obligated to re-write.
He's not here & no one has referenced his work.http://www.ukapologetics.net/1hislopbaby.htmlkepha31Hislop's 'Babylonian Mystery Religion' Teaching Exposed and Overturned
(an evangelical web site)
Not THIS skeptic and none of the others on this thread that I know of.Some skeptics claim that Christians copied their belief in Jesus' atoning death and resurrection from pagan mythology.
Why? Because it's easier to refute something no-one here is espousing?Let's examine this theory.
If you care to check, you might notice no one here is claiming that.Nineteenth-century atheists loved the notion of "pagan christs", since it seemed to refute Christianity's claim of divine origin and superiority over paganism.
You keep refuting or denying evidence not being presented.The historical evidence for corruption leading to apostasy from the paranoid fundamentalist view is as lacking as the archaelogical evidence that an apostasty ever happened.
I think this thread is falling apart into something not related to the OP.
THAT constitutes "evidence"? ROFL!Some people on these forums have questioned that there is no evidence of an "unbroken succession" from St. Peter until now. I would like to clarify that up with this:
St. Peter 67
St. Linus 67-76
St. Anacletus 76-88
St. Clement I, 88-97
St. Evaristus 97-105
St. Alexander I, 105-115
St. Sixtus I, 115-125
St. Telesphorus 125-36
St. Hyginus 136-40
St. Pius I, 140-55
St. Anicetus 155-66
St. Soter 166-75
St. Eleuterius 175-89
St. Victor I, 189-99
St. Zephyrinus 199-217
St. Callistus I, 217-22
St. Urban I, 222-30
And the list goes on in unbroken succession. All the way, 265 Popes later to Pope Benedict himself.![]()
THAT constitutes "evidence"? ROFL!
I have a list of names of Santa's reindeer. Does it prove they exist?