It's one theory, and a somewhat strained one at that.
This is how the Jews understand the Key in Isaias.
But we are speaking of Peter, not that ONE use of the word
key occurring in Isaias.
Of course it is. It is an analogy. It requires an explanation, i.e. a theory. That is unless you are arguing that Peter was turned into a piece of jagged metal with a fingergrip at one end.
lTo understand this then you will have to visit some Jewish writings from before Christ I think.
I disagree. To say that assumes, without reason, that there is one and only one possible meaning to the keys analogy.
Early Church Fathers made special mention of the Keys being to Peter only and for a reason.
Hey. We AGREE that Jesus gave Peter 'the keys!"
The issue is what is meant by them in that situation.
Much of what people contest today as 'theory' was simple truths back around the 1st and 2nd century.
If so, you can provide us with the evidence, Right? You can't just say that it's simple, that everyone thought according to your theory. If it's that simple and agreed-upon, there would be plenty of evidence from the first century. You haven't offered us any so far. And what is more, it is what JESUS meant, not what the ordinary Jew might have thought. As you know, they thought that the Messiah was to be a political deliverer, something Jesus had to disabuse them of. So if the common man hoped that the keys reference meant a political leader, we still don't have an explanation of what Jesus meant or Peter assumed.
But we do know that Peter opened the Gospel to the world (keys), that Jesus did not speak of this authority being transferrable, and that no bishops of Rome spoke of it as you have for quite some time. Why not, if is was as simple as you say?