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A grammar question

Feb 17, 2007
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I looked your question up on a site devoted to grammar, the address of which is:

http://mind.cog.jhu.edu/grad-students/culbertson/Thesis%202004.pdf


The pertinent excerpt is:

< < Historically, English has vacillated between preferring be or have as the compound past auxiliary. Many Old and Middle English intransitive verbs allowed either auxiliary without a change in meaning, however certain verbs maintained a more robust selection of be. Like other Germanic languages, English also used have for reflexives. In Modern English, all verbs uses have to form compound perfect. However some archaic forms are still accepted, generally in literary of liturgical contexts, for example, “Christ is risen.” > >

I hope that helps. (I learned something, too. I had thought 'risen' was just the past participle object of the verb 'is'.)
 
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Feb 4, 2002
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well, if you just said "the ship made of wood." then everyone would be staring at you wondering if you were ever going to complete your sentence. if you took out the to be verb you'd almost have to say something like: "The ship made of wood sank."

or, if in conversation with someone:
"The ship sank."
"What ship?"
"The ship made of wood."

but then that just changed the meaning of the original sentence.

english is strange. so many rules and so many exceptions to the rule.
 
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Feb 4, 2002
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it's present tense. you're talking about what it's currently made of. you're describing something and therefore need a verb.

the board is damaged. --- "damaged" describes the board and is not acting as a verb there. "the board damaged" is an incomplete sentence.

the ship is made of wood. -- "made" is acting as an adjective and not a verb.
 
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Chilufya

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I concur with 'risen' being an adjective. If you were talking about a pan of bread dough, you could certainly say "Once the dough is risen, punch it down and allow a second rise."

An apples and oranges comparison to be sure, but I still think it is a valid comparison.
 
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