As we hear music played on the radio these days pertaining to drugs, sex and immoral lifestyles, we automatically assume it is a direct result of the influence of evil and the corrupt human nature.
What about those classical pieces that had no lyrics?
Should we consider the writer's motives and moral's, and true intentions behind a classical piece when determining whether or not it is also a direct result of the influence of evil and the corrupt human nature?
I love classical music. But this thought has just dawned me that the creators and composers to some of these wonderful pieces could have been very similar, if not worse, to secular artists today.
Thoughts?
What about those classical pieces that had no lyrics?
Should we consider the writer's motives and moral's, and true intentions behind a classical piece when determining whether or not it is also a direct result of the influence of evil and the corrupt human nature?
I love classical music. But this thought has just dawned me that the creators and composers to some of these wonderful pieces could have been very similar, if not worse, to secular artists today.
Thoughts?