1 Corinthians

[savedandhappy1]

So much has been said about 1 Corinthians from both sides of this issue, but it has mainly been over the interpretation of a few words.

Well I think we can agree that both sides believe that the scriptures should be taken in context and as a whole to truely find the meanings. So in doing that I think we have to look at the verses before and after any scripture/verse we are studying.

1 Corinthians 7:1-2
1 Now concerning the things about which ye wrote unto me, it is good for a man not to touch a woman.
2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let EVERY man have his own wife, and let EVERY woman have her own husband.

G1538
ἕκαστος
hekastos
hek'-as-tos
As if a superlative of ἕκας hekas (afar); each or every: - any, both, each (one), every (man, one, woman), particularly.

In my KJV Bible, the 7th chapter has the heading that "Because God has established marriage". If we take the bible as a whole and in context we see how every man is to have his own wife. We also see in many places where the bible says that a man shall leave his parents and cleave unto his wife, and they shall be one flesh.

Looking at all the scriptures that tell how a wife should treat a husband, and how a husband should treat a wife, along with the scriptures I spoke of above, I find it amazing that people can say that the bible doesn't establish the institution of marriage, and that institution is kept the same way in both the OT and the NT.

If every man is to have a woman, and every woman is to have a man, who does that leave?

Gen 2:18-24
18And the LORD God said, It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him an help meet for him.

19And out of the ground the LORD God formed every beast of the field, and every fowl of the air; and brought them unto Adam to see what he would call them: and whatsoever Adam called every living creature, that was the name thereof.
20And Adam gave names to all cattle, and to the fowl of the air, and to every beast of the field; but for Adam there was not found an help meet for him.
21And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof; 22And the rib, which the LORD God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man.

23And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man. 24Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

We also see in verse 18 how it is not good for man to be alone so God made him a help mate, a woman, Not a man!

 

[Brieuse]

If we take the bible as a whole and in context we see how every man is to have his own wife.

Your teaching contradicts Matthew 19.

 

[lincolngreen50]

Your teaching contradicts Matthew 19.

I dont get your point. In Matthew 19 Jesus is talking about cellibricy.
In the other passage of Matthew19 he is teaching about the sanctity of marriage.
What has that to do with the subject of Homosexuality?

 

[lincolngreen50]

So much has been said about 1 Corinthians from both sides of this issue, but it has mainly been over the interpretation of a few words.

Well I think we can agree that both sides believe that the scriptures should be taken in context and as a whole to truely find the meanings. So in doing that I think we have to look at the verses before and after any scripture/verse we are studying.

1 Corinthians 7:1-2
1 Now concerning the things about which ye wrote unto me, it is good for a man not to touch a woman.
2 Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let EVERY man have his own wife, and let EVERY woman have her own husband.

G1538
ἕκαστος
hekastos
hek'-as-tos
As if a superlative of ἕκας hekas (afar); each or every: - any, both, each (one), every (man, one, woman), particularly.

In my KJV Bible, the 7th chapter has the heading that "Because God has established marriage". If we take the bible as a whole and in context we see how every man is to have his own wife. We also see in many places where the bible says that a man shall leave his parents and cleave unto his wife, and they shall be one flesh.

Looking at all the scriptures that tell how a wife should treat a husband, and how a husband should treat a wife, along with the scriptures I spoke of above, I find it amazing that people can say that the bible doesn't establish the institution of marriage, and that institution is kept the same way in both the OT and the NT.

If every man is to have a woman, and every woman is to have a man, who does that leave?

Gen 2:18-24
18And the LORD God said, It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him an help meet for him.

19And out of the ground the LORD God formed every beast of the field, and every fowl of the air; and brought them unto Adam to see what he would call them: and whatsoever Adam called every living creature, that was the name thereof.
20And Adam gave names to all cattle, and to the fowl of the air, and to every beast of the field; but for Adam there was not found an help meet for him.
21And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof; 22And the rib, which the LORD God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man.

23And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man. 24Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

We also see in verse 18 how it is not good for man to be alone so God made him a help mate, a woman, Not a man!

You said it brother

 

[Brieuse]

I dont get your point. In Matthew 19 Jesus is talking about cellibricy.
In the other passage of Matthew19 he is teaching about the sanctity of marriage.
What has that to do with the subject of Homosexuality?

Actually, Matthew 19 is about divorce.

He said every man is to have a wife.

Jesus said in Matthew 19 that not every man has to have a wife.

 

[lincolngreen50]

Actually, Matthew 19 is about divorce.

He said every man is to have a wife.

Jesus said in Matthew 19 that not every man has to have a wife.

Jesus said in Matthew 19 that not every man has to have a wife.

Jesus tought that only if the man decides to be cellibrate then he dosn`t have to take a wife.
This has nothing to do with divorce or the green light to involve ones self in Homosexual thoughts and acts.
Incidentally many religious people chose to stay cellibrate to preach the gospel of Christ.
Christ himself was celibrate of course.
Jesus was refering to the Nazarite vow in this context.

 

[Brieuse]

Jesus said in Matthew 19 that not every man has to have a wife.

Jesus tought that only if the man decides to be cellibrate then he dosn`t have to take a wife.
This has nothing to do with divorce or the green light to involve ones self in Homosexual thoughts and acts.
Incidentally many religious people chose to stay cellibrate to preach the gospel of Christ.
Christ himself was celibrate of course.
Jesus was refering to the Nazarite vow in this context.

So you agree then that the statement "Every man has to have a wife" is incorrect?

 

[lincolngreen50]

So you agree then that the statement "Every man has to have a wife" is incorrect?

The book of Matthew is directed to a Jewish audiance.
Jesus was refering to the Nazareth vow where a man vows to GOD (not to anyone else) to be celibate, not to drink, keep his hair long etc...Jesus and Sampson was an example of this. Basically its like being married to God. You have nuns and priests that are married to God.

But regarding your statement above, this is what the bible states in Gen 2 vs 23-24

And Adam said "This is now bone of my bones. And flesh of my flesh; She shall be called Woman, Because she has taken out of Man" Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and were not ashamed.

A man does not take up a wife according to Jesus is IF you were taking the nazarite vow. I can not say that the statement 'every man has to have a wife' is false or incorrect. For the bible states it so. However, God made the exception to the rule in the book of Numbers where he talks about critierias of the Nazarite vow. Jesus only expounded on this.

 

[davedjy]

You said it brother

Kathy is your brother in Christ?

 

[davedjy]

Your teaching contradicts Matthew 19.

Yet in it's full context, none of these verses condemn homosexuality. They are verses aimed towards heterosexuals.

 

[lincolngreen50]

Kathy is your brother in Christ?

Sister, brother,mate,cobber,pal,friend.
How many similies do you want to describe a friend in Christ.

 

[Phinehas2]

Dear savedandhappy1,

So much has been said about 1 Corinthians from both sides of this issue, but it has mainly been over the interpretation of a few words.

Yes but thats no longer really the point, nothing has been said over any verse that countenances same-sex sex, because there arent any.
And in addition 1 Corinthians is just one passage of scripture amongst several that either exclude same-sex sex or condemn it.
The key is not to look at the Bible in terms of sexuality, which is not really mentioned, but in terms of what God's word says about sexual unions and acts. If one looks at the Bible from a sexuality point of view one has already missed what the scriptures say.

 

[lincolngreen50]

Yet in it's full context, none of these verses condemn homosexuality. They are verses aimed towards heterosexuals.

Well, the question asked had nothing to do with homosexuality, it had to do with whether a statement another poster made was correct or incorrect. The statement asked was if 'Every man has to have a wife' , he never asked whether it condones or condemns homosexuality.

However, you have just validated the poster point that the bible only talks about martial relationships between a man and a woman and not about any other relationships outside the family then a husband and wife.

 

[Phinehas2]

Dear lincolngreen50

Well, the question asked had nothing to do with homosexuality, it had to do with whether a statement another poster made was correct or incorrect. The statement asked was if 'Every man has to have a wife' , he never asked whether it condones or condemns homosexuality.

However, you have just validated the poster point that the bible only talks about martial relationships between a man and a woman and not about any other relationships outside the family then a husband and wife.

exactly !

 

[savedandhappy1]

Your teaching contradicts Matthew 19.

How come I knew this would come up even tho I said if we take the bible as a whole and in context?

Why did I know that people wouldn't take the bible as a whole and in context, and that they wouldn't understand that every man that is meant to marry is to marry a woman, if I didn't point that out?

No contradiction at all.

 

[savedandhappy1]

You said it brother

It is sister in Christ, but that isn't important. Thanks.

 

[savedandhappy1]

Well, the question asked had nothing to do with homosexuality, it had to do with whether a statement another poster made was correct or incorrect. The statement asked was if 'Every man has to have a wife' , he never asked whether it condones or condemns homosexuality.

However, you have just validated the poster point that the bible only talks about martial relationships between a man and a woman and not about any other relationships outside the family then a husband and wife.

 

[savedandhappy1]

So you agree then that the statement "Every man has to have a wife" is incorrect?

Nope, not incorrect, if we take the Bible as a whole and in context.

 

[savedandhappy1]

Yet in it's full context, none of these verses condemn homosexuality. They are verses aimed towards heterosexuals.

No these scriptures are talking about the only physical relationship that we are to have, and that is with the opposite sex.

Been that way since creation, and is affirmed in both the OT and the NT.

 

[savedandhappy1]

Dear savedandhappy1,
[/color]
Yes but thats no longer really the point, nothing has been said over any verse that countenances same-sex sex, because there arent any.
And in addition 1 Corinthians is just one passage of scripture amongst several that either exclude same-sex sex or condemn it.
The key is not to look at the Bible in terms of sexuality, which is not really mentioned, but in terms of what God's word says about sexual unions and acts. If one looks at the Bible from a sexuality point of view one has already missed what the scriptures say.

I agree that to much time is spent on fleshly topics, but it is with the flesh that we sin.

1 Cor 6:15-19
15Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid.

16What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
17But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit.
18Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body. 19What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own?

Romans 12:1-5
1I beseech you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that ye present your bodies a living sacrifice, holy, acceptable unto God, which is your reasonable service.

2And be not conformed to this world: but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God.


1 Cor 6:13
13Meats for the belly, and the belly for meats: but God shall destroy both it and them. Now the body is not for fornication, but for the Lord; and the Lord for the body.