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Why we are not supposed to keep the Sabbath

CLEEB

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Abraham was married long before he was called by God to leave the religions of his father. This is no proof that God's Law didn't exist. Hopefully God doesn't hold the sins of Abraham against him, before God showed him "the way of the Lord". Otherwise we are all doomed.



Sarah gave her handmade to be Abram's wife. How is Abram guilty of transgressing God's Laws, by marrying her?

Ex. 21: 10 If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish.



This is true, in my understanding as well.




Moses never said any such thing. The Bible doesn't support the popular religious philosophy that the Laws, Judgments, Statutes and Commandments God gave Abraham to obey, are different than the Laws, Judgments, Statutes and Commandments God gave Abraham's Children to obey.



This is true, in my view as well..
If you are a law keeper then can you commit adultery ? The law says plainly that people who commit adultery are to be killed. Leviticus 20:10 GOD S law is equal and fair to all people. There is only one law for anyone, Exodus 12:49 Numbers 15:15-16 Just as there is only one hope of salvation there is only one law that GOD gave through Moses that applies to all. As GOD said, every man shall die for his own sin, sin is the transgression of the law and the wages of sin is death. All have sinned and have fallen short of the glory of GOD. No one gets out of the law unless they are in Christ.
 
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Hentenza

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They do not have Jesus saying we do not need to keep the Sabbath commandment and you know it otherwise you would simply produce the verse. God knows it too, who we can't hide anything from Ecc12:13-14
Sure it does. You just refuse to understand that the 10 commandments are part of the Mosaic law and was never repeated into Jesus two love commandments. Second, I don’t have to prove a negative, you do. There is no mention of the 4th commandment being part of the new covenant so you have to show where it is part of the new covenant. Third, the law was NEVER given to the gentiles collectively so it wouldn’t apply anyway. This is the reason that Jesus repeated the moral commandments into His two love commandments. You have to show that the gentiles were given the law also. This is you burden of proof not mine.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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This is you burden of proof not mine.
You said Jesus changed the Sabbath, but did not provided one verse of Him saying He did.

I guess this debate will get sorted out at His soon return. Jesus already promised what the future brings to those who serve Him Isa56:6 Rev22:14 Isa66:22-23
 
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DamianWarS

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This is a different argument than what I asked.

I asked very simply in Jesus own words where did He say we don't have to keep the Sabbath commandment? You claimed He changed the Sabbath. The summary of the Law, the two greatest commandments is not Jesus saying we can break the Sabbath commandment, they include the Sabbath according to God what Jesus who is God quoted Deut6:5.

So where is the verse where Jesus after His death told anyone, we do not need to keep the Sabbath commandment. He certainly did not tell His faithful followers who kept the Sabbath according to the comamndment after His death Luke23:56 so where is the verse where He told them or anyone to not keep the Sabbath commandment. Jesus wrote and spoke- Remember the Sabbath day to keep it holy. Exo20:8-11, the Sabbath is My holy day Isa58:13 Where did He say just as clearly, we do not have to keep the Sabbath commandment. If you can't find it, because its not there, I would be careful adding words that our Lord and Savior did not say, but that's me I would never want to put myself in the place of Him and speak for Him on something He said the opposite. Eze20:12 Eze20:20 Mat24:20 Isa66:22-23.
I did not say Christ changes Sabbath law (and certainly not Sabbath) nor any law for that matter, please don't misrepresent me. Do you think Christ changed the laws for the sarafice? Or circumcision? Or for separating grains or threads for that matter? Christ does not appolish any law (he says so himself). He fulfills them (he also said this). Which law? The context is in Mat 5:17, you can read it yourself. You already accept this but are unwilling to apply it to all law. You're the one segregating law for the sake of your tradition not Christ. I can't defend this practice nor find scriptural support for it.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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I did not say Christ changes Sabbath law (and certainly not Sabbath) nor any law for that matter, please don't misrepresent me.
The post you are replying to was not addressed to you.
 
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DamianWarS

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I know you are just furthering what this world's religions have taught you, and you genuinely believe what you just posted. And it is doubtful, as Jesus declares, that you will be persuaded of anything different.

Nevertheless, because of Love for the brethren, I would like to share with you and those reading along, the error in this popular religious philosophy of this world.

#1. To believe you, I would have to believe that the "Them of Old Time" He is speaking to in Matt. 5, is God, and the Prophet HE Sent, and that Jesus came to destroy their teaching, so that men would be discouraged to no longer "Live By" the Word's Jesus said to Live By. But when you actually read what Jesus is saying, He isn't correcting His Father and the Prophets, HE is exposing the teaching of the Pharisees. Jesus just said:

For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven. Remember, these preachers, as did their fathers, "omitted the weightier matters of the Law". They transgressed God's Commandments by their own religious traditions. Please look at the first "LAW" you are claiming God didn't teach, but Jesus did.

21 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:

22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.

So what does the Law of God say?

Lev. 19: 17 Thou shalt not hate thy brother in thine heart: thou shalt in any wise rebuke thy neighbour, and not suffer sin upon him.

So Jesus is just repeating what the Law and Prophets, and HE Himself has taught about the "Jews Religion" from the beginning.

Like it was pointed out to you earlier, the devils mission is to turn men away from obedience to God. And to do that, it "Professes to know God", like the serpent in the garden, and it quotes "Some" of God's Word, like the serpent in the garden. And Jesus Himself called these Pharisees and scribes, "children of the devil". Malachi said of their fathers: "Therefore have I also made you contemptible and base before all the people, according as ye have not kept my ways, but have been "partial in the law".

In every verse where Jesus is exposing the "Them of old time", He shows what the Words of God the corrupt priests quoted, and followed up with the Words of God they omitted. I'll give you a couple more examples, in the in sincere hope you might consider.

31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: 32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

Duet. 24: 1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found "some uncleanness in her": then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.

Jer. 3: 8 And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.

Matt. 19: 7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? 8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, "except it be for fornication", and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

Again, the "them of old time" promoted divorce for any reason. But the LAW only gave ONE reason for divorce. This is clear as a bell, for those who are interested in what is actually written. Lets examine another.

33 Again, ye have heard that it hath been said by them of old time, Thou shalt not forswear thyself, but shalt perform unto the Lord thine oaths:

34 But I say unto you, "Swear not at all"; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne: 35 Nor by the earth; for it is his footstool: neither by Jerusalem; for it is the city of the great King. 36 Neither shalt thou swear by thy head, because thou canst not make one hair white or black. 37 But let your communication be, Yea, yea; Nay, nay: for whatsoever is more than these cometh of evil.

What does the LAW say?

Deut. 5: 21 When thou shalt vow a vow unto the LORD thy God, thou shalt not slack to pay it: for the LORD thy God will surely require it of thee; and it would be sin in thee. 22 But if thou shalt "forbear to vow", it shall be no sin in thee.

In every case Jesus is pointing out the "LAW" that the "them of Old Time" omitted.

38 Ye have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth: 39 But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on thy right cheek, turn to him the other also.

Lev. 19: 18 Thou shalt "not avenge", nor "bear any grudge" against the children of thy people, but thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself: I am the LORD.

The teaching that Jesus, who had just said "except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven.", but then went on to diminish His Father and the Prophets His Father sent, is really wicked and not true. You mean well, I don't think you are promoting such a falsehood on purpose. And we have all been deceived in our lives.

But I hope you will consider that the "Them of Old Time", in Matt. 5, right after Jesus said HE didn't come to destroy the Law and Prophets, is NOT His Father and the Prophets, but the Fathers of the Pharisees, who were, as it is written and told us by Jesus Himself, "omitted the weightier matters of the Law".

Remember, The Christ Jesus "IS" the LAW of God who came in the Flesh.
I know you are just furthering what this world's religions have taught you, and you genuinely believe what you just posted. And it is doubtful, as Jesus declares, that you will be persuaded of anything different.

Nevertheless, because of Love for the brethren, I would like to share with you and those reading along, the error in this popular religious philosophy of this world.

Sound familiar? Does it feel a little patronising? Perhaps you want to try again in a manner that sees your brethren holding scripture and Christ to the highest regard over blaming people to be against Christ and his teachings (that is what philosophies of the world means doesn't it). Sure we can disagree but don't do this... It's derogatory and undermining and has no place in these forms nor does it speak well to your character or strength of position when you need to open this way.

I won't engage these comments further if not corrected.
 
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Hentenza

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No, you said Jesus changed the Sabbath, but did not provided one verse of Him saying He did.
Yes I did. Jesus became the lord of everything even of the sabbath. I don’t have to prove a negative. You have to prove that the 4th commandment is included in the new covenant. You have to prove that the law was given to the gentiles including the 4th commandment.
I see there is no reasoning, because you refuse to support your own claim, speaking your words as if they are God's.
My claims are supported.
Sad, many people do this and its why I believe God in His own words relates breaking the Sabbath to idol worship Eze20:16 replacing the authority of God who wrote the Ten Commandments according to God Deut4:13 Exo31:18 and claimed them as His commandments Exo20:6 (not Moses) in His own written and spoken Testimony Exo31:18 and lowering it to be equal or lower to what man says. This is not a new problem, it was addressed many times in Scripture.
What is sad is that you continue to use verses that refer to the Mosaic law to prove that they apply to the gentile church when the law was never given to the gentiles. Your tired argument here does not work and your legalistic view is not scriptural.
 
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DamianWarS

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After quoting only from the Ten He said FUTHERMORE, which means in addition and than even related those to the Ten Commandments.
He also says AGAIN in v33. This does not separate the 10 from the law, no scripture teaches that. Certainly "furthermore" is not the key to unlock such a doctrine, this is grasping. The text does not support such a claim.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Yes I did. Jesus became the lord of everything even of the sabbath. I don’t have to prove a negative. You have to prove that the 4th commandment is included in the new covenant. You have to prove that the law was given to the gentiles including the 4th commandment.

My claims are supported.

What is sad is that you continue to use verses that refer to the Mosaic law to prove that they apply to the gentile church when the law was never given to the gentiles. Your tired argument here does not work and your legalistic view is not scriptural.
He didn't become Lord of the Sabbath i.e. the creation, He is the Lord of the Sabbath Creator from the beginning. Gen 2:1-3 Exo20:11 Col 1:16 and the Lord of the Sabbath spoke directly from His own mouth all throughout the Scriptures about the Sabbath always telling us to keep it, never once telling us not to, but warning against this very thing.

Why no verse that Jesus changed the Sabbath, I do not recommend adding our words to His.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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He also says AGAIN in v33. This does not separate the 10 from the law, no scripture teaches that. Certainly "furthermore" is not the key to unlock such a doctrine, this is grasping. The text does not support such a claim.
He separated the two commandments from the Ten Commandments with this..

31 “Furthermore it has been said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.’ 32 But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except [l]sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.

And than relates divorce with adultery from the Ten Commandments again an example of Him magnifying His law, making bigger, not lessor.
 
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Studyman

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If you are a law keeper then can you commit adultery ?
The law says plainly that people who commit adultery are to be killed. Leviticus 20:10 GOD S law is equal and fair to all people. There is only one law for anyone, Exodus 12:49 Numbers 15:15-16 Just as there is only one hope of salvation there is only one law that GOD gave through Moses that applies to all. As GOD said, every man shall die for his own sin, sin is the transgression of the law and the wages of sin is death. All have sinned and have fallen short of the glory of GOD. No one gets out of the law unless they are in Christ.

You can mock God where His Friend Abraham is concerned if the spirit in you leads to such behavior.

I would remind you that Abraham is dead, and will remain that way, because HE sinned, just as the Righteous God of Abraham says. And Abraham, like all obedient, Faithful Servants of God died in Hope that the Lord's Christ, whose day Abraham saw and was glad, will return one day, and raise Him from the dead.

That you would exalt yourself over Abraham, judging him as an adulterer, a judgment that neither God, nor Moses, nor any of the Prophets, nor Jesus nor any of the Apostles of Christ made, suggested or even implied, is proof positive that the Spirit that guided them in their discourse concerning Abraham, is not be the same spirit as the one directing your preaching concerning him.

You are free to continue in your judgments against Abraham, which are contrary to God's Judgments of Abraham, if your human heart directs you to. But I don't have to partake in them.

So long.
 
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DamianWarS

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He separated the two commandments from the Ten Commandments with this..

31 “Furthermore it has been said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.’ 32 But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except [l]sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.

And than relates divorce right to adultery from the Ten Commandments.
I got the logic, you seem to think this means the 10 commandments are separate from the rest of law despite the context pointing to many reasons why it doesn't but vs 31 says "furthermore" so that must mean the 10 are treated differently? Furthermore is used to belabour the point not to tell us we need to pull the 10 out of law. If it were the later we need a lot more than this to build a doctrine.

Furthermore (I'm belabouring the point), the quotes Christ uses do not all superimpose over the 10 and Christ highlights other values. This passage simply cannot responsibly show us we should separate the 10 from the law. We can't just insert commentary and say that's what Jesus really meant. What he really meant is what he said. Jots and tittles for example references a source from ink not a source from stone (that has no jots and tittles). Christ would have used stone imagery over ink if he intended to highlight only the tablets.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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I got the logic, you seem to think this means the 10 commandments are separate from the rest of law despite the context pointing to many reasons why it doesn't but vs 31 says "furthermore" so that must mean the 10 are treated differently? Furthermore is used to belabour the point not to tell us we need to pull the 10 out of law. If it were the later we need a lot more than this to build a doctrine.

Furthermore (I'm belabouring the point), the quotes Christ uses do not all superimpose over the 10 and Christ highlights other values. This passage simply cannot responsibly show us we should separate the 10 from the law. We can't just insert commentary and say that's what Jesus really meant. What he really meant is what he said. Jots and tittles for example references a source from ink not a source from stone (that has no jots and tittles). Christ would have used stone imagery over ink if he intended to highlight only the tablets.
I believe God did that when after He spoke the Ten Commandments He added NO MORE Deut 5:22 He wrote Ten Commandments Deut4:13 no more, its the whole law of God 2 Chro33:8 James2:10-12, God is capable of making a whole law without man having to add to it,. Just like He made heaven and earth without man Exo20:11 He clearly spoke and wrote what He meant Deut4:13 Exo 34:28

The Ten Commandments is what man will be judged by James2:11-12 why its the only Law under God's mercy seat Exo25:21 Rev 15:5 Rev 11:19 they mean much more than people realize as Jesus taught plainly from this same unit. Mat5:17-30 If everyone was keeping them the way Jesus explained there would be no more sin.

A jot or tittle has nothing to do with ink, He already said He wrote His Laws in stone Exo31:18 Deut9:10 not handwritten with ink on scrolls so lets not change what God said plainly. A Jot or Tittle means not something as small as a dot of an i or cross of a t can pass from His Laws, yet alone editing or removing an entire commandment or two.

ἰῶτα iōta, ee-o'-tah; of Hebrew origin (the tenth letter of the Hebrew alphabet); "iota", the name of the [ninth]1 letter of the Greek alphabet, put (figuratively) for a very small part of anything:—jot.

כ (A. V. tittle); the meaning is, 'not even the minutest part of the law shall perish.' ((Aeschylus, Thucydides, others.))
 
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Studyman

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I know you are just furthering what this world's religions have taught you, and you genuinely believe what you just posted. And it is doubtful, as Jesus declares, that you will be persuaded of anything different.

Nevertheless, because of Love for the brethren, I would like to share with you and those reading along, the error in this popular religious philosophy of this world.

Sound familiar? Does it feel a little patronising? Perhaps you want to try again in a manner that sees your brethren holding scripture and Christ to the highest regard over blaming people to be against Christ and his teachings (that is what philosophies of the world means doesn't it). Sure we can disagree but don't do this... It's derogatory and undermining and has no place in these forms nor does it speak well to your character or strength of position when you need to open this way.

I won't engage these comments further if not corrected.

My comments were from the heart of a man who was once deceived into believing, the same as you, that Jesus, in Matt. 5, was discouraging men from trusting the Holy Scriptures "for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" by claiming that The Words of God Jesus said to "live by" were not sufficient in revealing God's Righteousness. Implying that everyone that existed before Matt. 5, could not know God's righteousness.

I wasn't making stuff up about your stated philosophy, you made your philosophy perfectly clear, and I have heard of it for decades, and I was responding to what you actually taught.

Christ does quote from 10 but in a diminutive way, "You have heard that it was said to those of old" then goes on telling us a better way. So he tells us an older way, then shows us a better way, that better way is uniquely from Christ saying "But I say..." this creates a contrast between the ways of the old (the law) with the ways of Christ, showing Christ's way is better. Better than what? Better than the law.

I didn't want to accuse you of purposely promoting falsehoods about Jesus, I didn't believe you would do such a thing, any more than I did, when I believed it. I didn't mean to offend you and my comments were not meant to be patronizing. However, I can see where a teacher might be offended by them, and I should have chosen my words more carefully.

I truly apologize for my manner, And should have been more careful in my selection of words, and will take extra caution in any further engagement, to pick my words more carefully.

I too, like you, was taught this by the religions of this world God placed me in and believed it, and promoted it, for many years, that Jesus came to destroy God's Laws and bring HIS own Laws, "A better way"..

I was taught this very thing, and believed it, because I was taught not to believe Moses and the Prophets.

But when I started reading the Bible for myself, this popular religious philosophy started to fall apart.

Jesus said to "Live by" every Word of God. HE said, "And he said unto him, If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead.

But according to "Many" who come in Christ's Name, Jesus is teaching men not to hear God and the Prophets He sent, because Jesus has another way, a better way. As if HE wasn't the "Word of God who became flesh" in the first place.

But this world's religions were teaching to opposite, and were pitting Jesus against His Father who sent Him, in large part, by quoting parts of Matt. 5.. So I studied Matt. 5, apart from the influence of this world's religions, and found that the "Them of Old Time" wasn't God and the Prophets HE sent at all. They were the fathers of the Pharisees who had corrupted the Priesthood Covenant with Levi, and, as God inspired Malachi to write, according as ye have not kept my ways, but have been "partial in the law".

And because I love the brethren and want to warn them about this popular philosophy, I posted for you the truth of Matt. 5, concerning who the "Them of Old Time" truly was. Not based on my opinion, but based on what is actually written.

That the "Them of Old Time" was NOT God and the Prophets HE sent, but the corrupt Priests of Old Time, who Isaiah, Jeremiah, Malachi, Ezekiel, etc., warned about over and over and over, whose philosophies the Pharisees and scribes were promoting, that were partial in the Law. Do the study yourself, and you too, if you are seeking truth and not justification, will find the same thing.

If my manner offended you, I truly apologize. But if it prompts you or anyone else to "Do the Study" for themselves, as Everything Jesus said in Matt. 5, HE also said as the Word of God.

Prov. 6: 24 To keep thee from the evil woman, from the flattery of the tongue of a strange woman. 25 Lust not after her beauty in thine heart; neither let her take thee with her eyelids.
 
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CLEEB

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You can mock God where His Friend Abraham is concerned if the spirit in you leads to such behavior.

I would remind you that Abraham is dead, and will remain that way, because HE sinned, just as the Righteous God of Abraham says. And Abraham, like all obedient, Faithful Servants of God died in Hope that the Lord's Christ, whose day Abraham saw and was glad, will return one day, and raise Him from the dead.

That you would exalt yourself over Abraham, judging him as an adulterer, a judgment that neither God, nor Moses, nor any of the Prophets, nor Jesus nor any of the Apostles of Christ made, suggested or even implied, is proof positive that the Spirit that guided them in their discourse concerning Abraham, is not be the same spirit as the one directing your preaching concerning him.

You are free to continue in your judgments against Abraham, which are contrary to God's Judgments of Abraham, if your human heart directs you to. But I don't have to partake in them.

So long.
False accusations against me is not an answer to questions put to you. All you are doing is attempting to make a false accusation against me because you have no answers. Carnal minds do things like this to avoid being cornered by the truth. If you really want to be a law keeper then you had better keep the whole law because if you offend in just one point of the law you are guilty of all.
 
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Hentenza

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He didn't become Lord of the Sabbath i.e. the creation, He is the Lord of the Sabbath Creator of it starting back from the beginning.
Now you are adding words to scripture. The sabbath is not “the” creation but what happened at the end of creation. No one before Moses kept the sabbath because there was no commandment for it yet. And when the law was given to Moses it was for the Jews not for the gentiles.
 
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DamianWarS

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I believe God did that when after He spoke the Ten Commandments He added NO MORE Deut 5:22 He wrote Ten Commandments Deut4:13 no more, its the whole law of God 2 Chro33:8 James2:10-12, God is capable of making a whole law without man having to add to it,. Just like He made heaven and earth without man Exo20:11 He clearly spoke and wrote what He meant Deut4:13 Exo 34:28

the 10 came before the tablets. Ex 20 shows them first spoken along with more laws which formed a blood covenant all before Moses climbed the mountain to get the stone tablets. the coveant are not just for the 10 but all the commandments spoken (for example, the 10 are in Ex 20, the eye for an eye is in here in Ex 21 and of course, many others in ch 22 and 23. There's a lot to unpack, the blood covenant is in Ex 24, Moses didn't get the tablets until Ex 31 so there is a lot that comes before the tablets. if we look at God's finger, akin to his seal of the covenant (which is an appropriate meaning), to say this is the moment nothing else is added, then from Ex 20-31 there is a lot going on before it is finally sealed. 24-31 there are a lot of instructions for things like building the tabernacle, ark, lampstand, etc... but 20-23 are all commandments about daily practice, and these commandments as well the historical narrative in Ex, before 20 all build up to what this covenant is. What it certainly was not is only the 10 commandments (that is pretty clear by reading the blood covenant in Ex 24)

The Ten Commandments is what man will be judged by James2:11-12 why its the only Law under God's mercy seat Exo25:21 Rev 15:5 Rev 11:19 they mean much more than people realize as Jesus taught plainly from this same unit. Mat5:17-30 If everyone was keeping them the way Jesus explained there would be no more sin.

You are conflating with your references. I can do the same thing and say it points to something else. there is no link you've established that these references mean the 10 commandments only. I mean we have a disagreement about how Mat 5:17-30 is used to reference the 10 but you use this as your hinged source for proof that the 10 should be separated. This is too little to support such a wildly missing doctrine from scripture.

A jot or tittle has nothing to do with ink, He already said He wrote His Laws in stone Exo31:18 Deut9:10 not handwritten with ink on scrolls so lets not change what God said plainly. A Jot or Tittle means not something as small as a dot of an i or cross of a t can pass from His Laws, yet alone editing or removing an entire commandment or two.

jots don't, but tittles are characteristics of ink, in greek it litterally is a stroke.

ἰῶτα iōta, ee-o'-tah; of Hebrew origin (the tenth letter of the Hebrew alphabet); "iota", the name of the [ninth]1 letter of the Greek alphabet, put (figuratively) for a very small part of anything:—jot.

כ (A. V. tittle); the meaning is, 'not even the minutest part of the law shall perish.' ((Aeschylus, Thucydides, others.))
iota/jot (or yod) is of hebrew origin for the 10th letter of the alphabet. they use the iota/jot because it is the smallest character in the script but you have to use the Aramaic square script for that to be relevant. in Paleo Hebrew (what the tablets would have used) the letter is by no means the smallest but you can judge for yourself. the quickest Jot/Yod in Paleo Hebrew would need 4 straight line marks, but there are other letters that would be quicker that would only need 2 marks (hammer to chisel 2 times). the jot/iota is a direct reference to post-adoption of Aramaic square script and would be literally what the scrolls and the torah and prophets would be written with when Jesus spoke these words as they were constantly recopied to perserve them.

tittle/keraia (greek) is a reference to the smallest stroke of a pen. it assumes in ink (how the mind would process it), not in stone. The reference to a jot doesn't make sense for paleo hebrew (because it wasn't a small letter) and tittles are features of ink not of stone but Paleo Hebrew is very well suited for stone. Sure you could argue God used his finger so he had tittles in stone (small strokes of his finger) but the jot is still a problem and is clearly a reference to Aramaic square script not paleo Hebrew. Paleo hebrew has small features but is more of a blocky, chunky script and not well-suited for the diminutive references like this. tiny Jots are post-Aramaic square script references and tittles are ink characteristics not in stone or paleo hebrew origins. They simply do not make sense to highlight the tablets. I would expect stone imagery over ink imagery, and make no mistake, the latter is being used.

here is the jot in paleo Hebrew (what the tablets have) Yodh - Wikipedia (character didn't copy over, look at the wiki page for reference, comparing Phoenician which is same script as paleo hebrew, with Hebrew).
Notice straight square lines, perfect for etching into stone, one hit of the hammer for each line, but this is not a small letter

here is the jot is Aramaic square script (what Jesus was referencing) י
it's just a little flick of the pen and tiny, not suited for stone but suited for ink. Regardless if its ink or not, it's tiny (which is the point) and the paleo hebrew is not (which would be counter to the point)

it speaks for itself, Jesus was not referencing paleo Hebrew as his remarks don't support paleo Hebrew, ergo he was not referencing the tablets uniquely (which are written in paleo Hebrew) but rather the written scrolls of torah, which had tiny jots and tittles all throughout and would be the most naturally understood, especially among scribes and Pharisees who would have process Hebrew through Aramaic square script. The immediate images these references would have conjured is of ink not of stone.

The tablets, however, used Paleo Hebrew (since Aramaic square script wasn't even around); jots and tittles are not how you would express those characteristics.
 
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DamianWarS

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I truly apologize for my manner, And should have been more careful in my selection of words, and will take extra caution in any further engagement, to pick my words more carefully.
I'm sorry, I see this too consistent of behaviour from you to continue dialogue. I'm wish you the best.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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the 10 came before the tablets. Ex 20 shows them first spoken along with more laws which formed a blood covenant all before Moses climbed the mountain to get the stone tablets. the coveant are not just for the 10 but all the commandments spoken (for example, the 10 are in Ex 20, the eye for an eye is in here in Ex 21 and of course, many others in ch 22 and 23. There's a lot to unpack, the blood covenant is in Ex 24, Moses didn't get the tablets until Ex 31 so there is a lot that comes before the tablets. if we look at God's finger, akin to his seal of the covenant (which is an appropriate meaning), to say this is the moment nothing else is added, then from Ex 20-31 there is a lot going on before it is finally sealed. 24-31 there are a lot of instructions for things like building the tabernacle, ark, lampstand, etc... but 20-23 are all commandments about daily practice, and these commandments as well the historical narrative in Ex, before 20 all build up to what this covenant is. What it certainly was not is only the 10 commandments (that is pretty clear by reading the blood covenant in Ex 24)
The Ten did come before God codified them on stone as they are God's and always existed. However what consists of the words of the covenant was literally spelled out for us.

I don't know this seems pretty clear to me.

Exo 34:28 So he was there with the Lord forty days and forty nights; he neither ate bread nor drank water. And He wrote on the tablets the words of the covenant, the [a]Ten Commandments.

Deut 4:13 13 So He declared to you His covenant which He commanded you to perform, the Ten Commandments; and He wrote them on two tablets of stone.

When the Bible explains itself, in this case God Himself, we should just believe.

You seem to be conflating the Ten Commandments- God's commandments, with the law of Moses, who is not God.

According to Scripture no more was added to the Ten Commandments

Deut 5:22 “These words the Lord spoke to all your assembly, in the mountain from the midst of the fire, the cloud, and the thick darkness, with a loud voice; and He added no more. And He wrote them on two tablets of stone and gave them to me.

The Ten Commandments is not the other laws written by a human with ink on scrolls that were placed beside God's Laws, they were not written by God on stone they were not inside God's ark, they were placed outside for a purpose as they are not the same.

Deut 31:9 So Moses wrote this law and delivered it to the priests, the sons of Levi, who bore the ark of the covenant of the Lord, and to all the elders of Israel.

24 So it was, when Moses had completed writing the words of this law in a book, when they were finished, 25 that Moses commanded the Levites, who bore the ark of the covenant of the Lord, saying: 26 “Take this Book of the Law, and put it beside the ark of the covenant of the Lord your God, that it may be there as a witness against you;

Where is God's Covenant- the Ten Commandments

Lets let Scripture interpret Scripture

Exo 20:20 He took the Testimony and put it into the ark, inserted the poles through the rings of the ark, and put the mercy seat on top of the ark.

What is the Testimony?

Exo 31:18 And when He had made an end of speaking with him on Mount Sinai, He gave Moses two tablets of the Testimony, tablets of stone, written with the finger of God.

Where is God's Testimony, the Ten Commandments?

Exo 25:21 You shall put the mercy seat on top of the ark, and in the ark you shall put the Testimony that I will give you.

The Ten Commandments and Whose Testimony that consists of only two tablets of stone - its God's not Moses.

The mercy seat is where God (not Moses) would meet His priests Exodus 25:17–22, it was God's presence Exo 25:22, the ark represents God's throne Psa80:1 1 Samuel 4:4 Which parallels Rev 4 and 5. The earthy sacrificial system and sanctuary was a picture of God's Throne in heaven. The sanctuary tells us a lot about the plan of salvation- God's way is in the sanctuary Psa77:13

The Mercy Seat is a symbol for Jesus

Rom 3:25 Whom God has set forth to be a propitiation through faith in His blood…”

The word “propitiation” here is hilastērion
the exact Greek word for mercy seat in the Greek Old Testament (Septuagint)


And what was the earthy temple which represented attornment where the priests would bring in the blood of animals once a year and sprinkle blood of the mercy seat (atonement) Leviticus 16:14 the blood covered the law that is what reveals sin and this the method for forgiveness of sin Leviticus 16:30 all pointing forward to what Christ does in His Temple..

This was always to show the plan of salvation and points to what Jesus does in His heavenly Temple Heb8:1-5 who is now working as our High Priest in the Most Holy of His Temple- where the ark of the covenant is Rev11:19 Rev11:19 God's Testimony Rev15:5 which we are told under His mercy seat is the Ten Commandments Exo25:21 God's Testimony is what we will be Judged by James2:11-12 John12:48

If we do not allow God to define what sin is which He does 1John3:4 James2:11-12 Mat5:19-30 or how He atones for sin, in the OT it was the blood of animals which was a shadow showing of what Christ will do in the NT, now its the blood of Jesus. Sin is still sin, unrighteousness is still unrighteousness, we want our sins under His mercy seat because He covers it with His blood. If we refuse to allow God to be God to define these things which He does, one will only cover their sins where there is no mercy Pro28:13 John3:19-21 Exo20:6


If you wish to insist the God's own Testimony is not divine, but human, you can, but its not what the plain Scripture says. God's commandments is owned by God, they have always existed. Its God's standard of righteousness Psa119:172 including the Sabbath Isa 56:1-2 and regardless if we accept it or not it does not change- His righteousness is everlasting Psa119:142 and the foundation of His throne Psa89:14 .
You are conflating with your references. I can do the same thing and say it points to something else. there is no link you've established that these references mean the 10 commandments only. I mean we have a disagreement about how Mat 5:17-30 is used to reference the 10 but you use this as your hinged source for proof that the 10 should be separated. This is too little to support such a wildly missing doctrine from scripture.
Scripture tells us this plainly. We can choose to believe our own ideas over Scripture, which is sadly what most people do, but in the end its really only hurting ourselves, God's Word is to be the lamp to our feet Psa119:105 lean not on our own understanding but let God direct our paths which He does clearly through His Word Pro3:5-6 going outside His word is danger Isa8:20 why He tells us plainly not to add to it Pro30:5-6. because as we see below, it changes its meaning and we make the word of God of no effect Mark7:7-13 Mat15:3-14
jots don't, but tittles are characteristics of ink, in greek it litterally is a stroke.


iota/jot (or yod) is of hebrew origin for the 10th letter of the alphabet. they use the iota/jot because it is the smallest character in the script but you have to use the Aramaic square script for that to be relevant. in Paleo Hebrew (what the tablets would have used) the letter is by no means the smallest but you can judge for yourself. the quickest Jot/Yod in Paleo Hebrew would need 4 straight line marks, but there are other letters that would be quicker that would only need 2 marks (hammer to chisel 2 times). the jot/iota is a direct reference to post-adoption of Aramaic square script and would be literally what the scrolls and the torah and prophets would be written with when Jesus spoke these words as they were constantly recopied to perserve them.

tittle/keraia (greek) is a reference to the smallest stroke of a pen. it assumes in ink (how the mind would process it), not in stone. The reference to a jot doesn't make sense for paleo hebrew (because it wasn't a small letter) and tittles are features of ink not of stone but Paleo Hebrew is very well suited for stone. Sure you could argue God used his finger so he had tittles in stone (small strokes of his finger) but the jot is still a problem and is clearly a reference to Aramaic square script not paleo Hebrew. Paleo hebrew has small features but is more of a blocky, chunky script and not well-suited for the diminutive references like this. tiny Jots are post-Aramaic square script references and tittles are ink characteristics not in stone or paleo hebrew origins. They simply do not make sense to highlight the tablets. I would expect stone imagery over ink imagery, and make no mistake, the latter is being used.

here is the jot in paleo Hebrew (what the tablets have) Yodh - Wikipedia (character didn't copy over, look at the wiki page for reference, comparing Phoenician which is same script as paleo hebrew, with Hebrew).
Notice straight square lines, perfect for etching into stone, one hit of the hammer for each line, but this is not a small letter

here is the jot is Aramaic square script (what Jesus was referencing) י
it's just a little flick of the pen and tiny, not suited for stone but suited for ink. Regardless if its ink or not, it's tiny (which is the point) and the paleo hebrew is not (which would be counter to the point)

it speaks for itself, Jesus was not referencing paleo Hebrew as his remarks don't support paleo Hebrew, ergo he was not referencing the tablets uniquely (which are written in paleo Hebrew) but rather the written scrolls of torah, which had tiny jots and tittles all throughout and would be the most naturally understood, especially among scribes and Pharisees who would have process Hebrew through Aramaic square script. The immediate images these references would have conjured is of ink not of stone.

The tablets, however, used Paleo Hebrew (since Aramaic square script wasn't even around); jots and tittles are not how you would express those characteristics.
It characters and we were already told God wrote the Ten Commandments in stone, not ink, but if want not believe something else that is not in our Bibles, that's your free will. All gets sorted out soon enough.

Does jot or tittle refer to God writing in ink in Mat5:18

ChatGPT said:​

Short answer: No — “jot or tittle” in Matthew 5:18 has nothing to do with ink.
It refers to the smallest Hebrew letters and pen-strokes of God’s law, not to ink or handwriting style.
Let’s walk through this using only the Bible and the original languages.

Matthew 5:18

“Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law…”

Jesus is not talking about:​

❌ ink
❌ handwriting
❌ calligraphy
❌ material the law was written on
He is talking about the smallest parts of God’s written law — the letters themselves, and the tiny strokes that distinguish one letter from another.

⭐ 1. WHAT IS A “JOT”?​

Greek: ἰῶτα (iōta)
Hebrew equivalent: י (yod)
  • The smallest letter in the Hebrew alphabet
  • Like an apostrophe or tiny comma
  • Represents the smallest unit of writing in the Law of God

✔ Not ink​

✔ Not handwriting​

✔ Not style​

✔ It’s the actual letter written by God​


⭐ 2. WHAT IS A “TITTLE”?​

Greek: κεραία (keraia)
Meaning: a small stroke, hook, or extension on a Hebrew letter
It refers to the tiny marks that distinguish similar Hebrew letters.
Examples:
  • ב (bet) vs. כ (kaf) differ by one tiny stroke
  • ד (dalet) vs. ר (resh) differ by the smallest curve
  • פ (peh) vs. ב (bet) differ by a corner mark
A “tittle” is the smallest stroke that changes the meaning of a Hebrew letter.

✔ Not ink​

✔ Not handwriting​

✔ It refers to the smallest shape or stroke in a written letter​


⭐ 3. JESUS’ POINT HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH INK​

Jesus is NOT discussing:
  • how Moses or scribes wrote
  • the material used
  • whether it was stone, parchment, ink, or stylus
He is discussing the permanence and unchangeable nature of God’s law.
He is saying:
Not even the tiniest letter or smallest stroke of God’s law will pass away until heaven and earth pass.
This means:
  • God’s law is unalterable
  • No human can change it
  • No detail is too small
  • God’s law stands fully intact
This fits perfectly with:

✔ Psalm 119:89​

“Your word is forever settled in heaven.”

✔ Luke 16:17​

“It is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than for one tittle of the law to fail.”

⭐ 4. THE CONTEXT CONFIRMS JESUS IS SPEAKING OF SCRIPT, NOT INK​

Matthew 5:17–19 is about:
  • The law
  • Its authority
  • Its permanence
  • Not altering it
  • Teaching and obeying even the “least” commandment
Ink does not matter.
The letters and commandments themselves do.
Jesus’ argument:
  1. "I didn’t come to destroy the law."
  2. "Not even the smallest letter or stroke can be changed."
  3. "Whoever breaks even the least command will be least in the kingdom."
The discussion is about commandments, not materials.

⭐ 5. BIBLE-ONLY CONCLUSION​

❌ “Jot or tittle” does NOT mean ink.​

❌ Jesus is not referring to handwriting style.​

❌ He is not referring to how Moses wrote physically.​

✔ “Jot” = smallest Hebrew letter (yod)​

✔ “Tittle” = smallest stroke or serif on a Hebrew letter​

✔ Jesus’ meaning:​

The smallest detail of God’s law remains unchangeable.
This teaching supports:
  • Matthew 5:17 (Jesus didn’t abolish the law)
  • Matthew 5:19 (don’t break even least commandments)
  • Isaiah 42:21 (Messiah magnifies the law)
  • Psalm 119:152 (“Your commandments… you founded them forever”)
Jesus is reinforcing the permanence of God’s law, not describing ink.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Nothing here about the sabbath. Think about what follows the verses you posted. Those that preach the law are blind guides of blind people.

“But He answered and said, “Every plant which My heavenly Father did not plant will be uprooted. Leave them alone; they are blind guides of blind people. And if a person who is blind guides another who is blind, both will fall into a pit.””
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭15‬:‭13‬-‭14‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬

The Bible does not have to quote every single commandment to know when they quote from them, they include what God said they did, in this case Ten Commandments Deut4:13 Exo34:28

Jesus used interchangeably the commandments of God with the Word of God

Mat 15:3 And He answered and said to them, “Why do you yourselves also break the commandment of God for the sake of your tradition? 4 For God said, ‘Honor your father and mother,’ From the Ten Commandments
Mat 15:6 he is not to honor his father or mother.’ And by this you have invalidated the word of God for the sake of your tradition.


Mat 7:13 And in vain they worship Me,
Teaching as doctrines the commandments of men.’

8 For laying aside the commandment of God, you hold the tradition of men

Which commandment?
‘Honor your father and your mother’ (from the Ten Exo20:12 Deut4:13)

13 making the word of God of no effect through your tradition which you have handed down. And many such things you do.”

Exo 20:1 And God spoke all these words, saying…”

These “words” are the Ten Commandments.

The commandments of God Jesus used interchangeably with the Word of God. Wow, can you imagine making the word of God of no effect though traditions of man. That's pretty serious in my mind. Jesus said it was
"in vain they worship Me, Teaching as doctrines the commandments of men". The apostles spoke of this as well Col2:8

“These words the LORD spoke… and He added no more.
And He wrote them on two tablets of stone." Deut5:22

The Ten Commandments are explicitly called “the words” God spoke, and nothing else was added.


The Hebrew phrase is עֲשֶׂרֶת הַדְּבָרִיםAseret haDvarim
Meaning: The Ten Words.

The Ten Commandments is the Ten Words of God.

Mat 25:35 Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will by no means pass away.

Why again used interchangeably with the Ten Commandments, the Law of God.

Mat5:18 For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled.
Luke 16:17 It is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than for one tittle of the law to fail.

Because...

Psa 119:89 Forever, O LORD, Your word is settled in heaven. Right where His ark and Testimony is Rev 11:19 Rev15:5 and includes the Sabbath Isa66:22-23


Why again His word is used interchangeable with His Law in Judgement

John 12:48 He who rejects Me, and does not receive My words, has that which judges himthe word that I have spoken (His Testimony Exo31:18) will judge him in the last day.

James 2:11 For He who said, “Do not commit adultery,” also said, “Do not murder.” Now if you do not commit adultery, but you do murder, you have become a transgressor of the law. 12 So speak and so do as those who will be judged by the law of liberty

God tells us everything we need to know, but when we replace His words with ours sadly in the end we only hurt ourselves because if our sins are not under His mercy seat repented and turn from Pro28:13 sadly, this is what we have to look forward to. Heb10:26-30 Mat7:23 Rev22:15 instead of Rev 14:12 Rev22:14

Once God tells us what things mean, they stay the same throughout the Bible, because there is no one above God. The entire Bible is about the testimony of God John5:39 through His prophets and disciples. Who has the greatest testimony of all- God's Exo31:18 why it sits under His mercy seat unedited because He is God and we are called to join ourselves to Him and be His servant Isa56:6

I know this will probably not be received and that's okay, hopefully it will help someone understand these Biblical Truths. All of God's commandments are Truth Psa119:151 because the Holy Spirit of Truth wrote them. Exo31:18 God said it, our only response should be to believe and do James1:22 Luke6:46 Rev22:14.
 
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