So, dispense with Enoch as scriptures because there was not a quote from it...
I never argued "Enoch isn't scripture because there wasn't a quote from it in Matthew." I argued that one cannot try to use Matthew 22 to argue for it being scripture because it isn't being cited at all. The whole argument is "Jesus refers to the scriptures, then to Enoch, showing it's scripture" except Jesus never gives any quote from Enoch.
I dispense with the argument that there was a quote from 1 Enoch in Matthew 22 because
there was not a quote from it.
That would dispense with a lot of books we acknowledge as part of the Bible. Maybe that is not such a good argument as you thought it was.
Well, it wasn't the argument I made, so..
I can dispense with apocrypha being scriptures as I find contradictions to scriptures in them, and internal inconsistencies. What is found for that in 1 Enoch? I am looking at it and yet not finding it myself.
Well, I wasn't trying to argue anything about contradictions or inconsistencies, but still, various people have pointed to what they consider to be contradictions or inconsistencies in 1 Enoch; given his posts in this topic, I expect Jipsah would probably be happy to point to what he considers examples.
And about not being quoted, Enoch was quoted. Certainly by Jude, speaking of it as being from Enoch.
You didn't mention Jude in your post, so this is criticizing me for not responding to an argument you didn't make.
And there is more than that passage used in the new testament though without Enoch being named. So why did Jesus even say that angels in heaven do not give themselves in marriage? Where was that from? Just special inside knowledge Jesus chose to use, this time?
Hardly special inside knowledge; this was a belief by some Jews at that period, which presumably made its way into 1 Enoch on that basis. But there is no reason to believe that Jesus's statement was any reference to Enoch as scripture given that (1) Jesus doesn't introduce it in the way Jesus introduces scripture on essentially every other occasion, (2) it isn't a quote from Enoch anyway, and (3) the actual scriptural quote Jesus gives is from Exodus 3:6.
Where else does Jesus do that... with those not believing anyway?
As noted, there is no need for "special inside knowledge" for this--unless that special inside knowledge refers to knowing which of the various Jewish beliefs were correct.
However, even if it
was indeed special insider knowledge of what is true, the question was posed to Jesus, and Jesus answered it. Even when non-believers posed questions to Jesus, Jesus would normally answer them. There's an example of such a thing
just before the incident with the Sadducees, where the Pharisees try to do a similar "gotcha!" question to Jesus about whether to pay the imperial tax, to which Jesus gives the famous "render under Caesar what is Caesar's" quote.
His whole point is that those Sadducees do not know scriptures that they should. Not a great time to mention a concept not from scriptures that would be his very special knowledge exclusively. I am not buying that.
Jesus's reference to them being ignorant of the scriptures was, presumably, in reference to their denial of resurrection, which Jesus goes on to defend by citing Exodus 3:6 (the actual scripture cited). This seems like a bit of an odd choice to cite when there appear to be stronger verses, but there is evidence the Sadducees considered
only the Pentateuch (Genesis/Exodus/Leviticus/Deuteronomy/Numbers) to be scripture, in which case Jesus obviously wasn't going to get anywhere citing something from outside of those. Which only goes to show it would be very odd for Jesus to try to cite 1 Enoch as evidence for something to the Sadducees, as they presumably didn't accept it.