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Right, because of the context. When He said those words, He was present bodily with His disciples, so unless He had two bodies, "Take, eat, this is My Body" must be figurative.
But the bible uses a different Greek word for "cousin", for example here:
True, but you only have to think of a verse like this:
Perhaps you might like to reconsider in the context of Jesus feeding the 5000? There were just five loaves of bread and yet everyone ate their fill and there were twelve baskets of bread pieces left over. Consider the very non figurative language He used in John 6. When some of His disciples left on account of His words, He didn't run after them and say, "You idiots, I was only speaking figuratively!". He didn't correct them because they did not misunderstand, they simply didn't have faith that He would make eating His flesh and drinking His blood possible in a way that was not abhorrent to them. At the last supper He gave that to His disciples.
The bread and fish with which Jesus miraculously five thousand men, plus women and children, remained bread and fish. Certainly, later in John 6 we read of Him using the word "bread" figuratively:
Figurative for His flesh, which He states plainly:
Every Church established by Paul has consistently understood the bread and wine of the Eucharist to become the body and blood of Christ through the action of the Holy Spirit. Your interpretation only came about after the Reformation. Do you not see how difficult it would have been to introduce the doctrine of the real presence if that is not what was taught from the beginning? If you believe the doctrine is in error then show how and when it was introduced. How was it spread from England, across Europe and Asia to India?
But Jesus made no mention of the bread with which He fed the crowd being figurative. It was actual bread, and the fish were actual fish, they satisfied the crowd's hunger. Later, He made use of the picture of bread to describe Himself.
All sorts of false doctrines spread very early in Christian history. That doesn't make them right.
Then I didn't misunderstand why you made your comment. "The Word was made flesh and dwelt among us," and "the Word was God," so God was made flesh and dwelt among us. Did the Holy Spirit become flesh? Did the Father become flesh? Of course not.
For even His brothers did not believe in Him. - John 7:5
Good grief! You're not addressing any of what I'm posting.
What a cop out! The same bishops who fought against the false doctrines of Arianism, Nestorianism, Apollonarism, Macedonianism etc., who gave us the Creed which is the standard for Christian belief here on CF, you claim without any evidence that they themselves had fallen for a false teaching which spread through every Christian Church across the known world?
I am sorry you think that. I was replying to you post where you seemed to me to be saying that the bread with which Jesus fed the 5000 men plus women and children was figurative. I certainly was not deliberately ignoring what you posted.
I fully believe"the Creed which is the standard for Christian belief here on CF." As we seem to be getting away from the thread topic of "Did Jesus Pray to Mary?" I think I will leave it there.
I did not suggest the bread with which Jesus fed the 5000 was figurative. I was giving a reason why Jesus could be present with His disciples and give them His flesh to eat literally in the bread and wine He blessed.
You haven't responded to most of it. That does seem like you are ignoring it.
Ok
Jesus is the only mediator as He is the only one who is both God and man. Anyone can be an intercessor. Has no one ever asked you to pray for them? Do you honour their request or do you tell them to just pray to God?
Apparently you haven't paid much attention to 1 Corinthians 27-32. Hard to discern the Lord's Body and Blood in the Eucharist when you deny it was ever there. Just a sip and a nibble for custom's sake.
If someone asks old Miz Kim to pray for them, who does the praise God go?
Need a citation on that one, mate.
And as I noted, that forbids asking either old Miz Kim or the BVM to pray for you.
But when you ask a fellow-Christian on earth to pray for you, that is perfectly biblical (Paul asked other Christians to pray for him). Such asking isn't praying to your fellow Christian.
That is precisely what it is.
www.merriam-webster.com
I was talking about prayer as used in the bible. There is a huge difference between Paul asking for prayer and the same Paul actually praying:That is precisely what it is.
Definition of PRAY
entreat, implore —often used as a function word in introducing a question, request, or plea; to get or bring by praying; to make a request in a humble manner… See the full definition
transitive verb
intransitive verb
- : entreat, implore —often used as a function word in introducing a question, request, or plea, "pray be careful"
- : to get or bring by praying
- : to make a request in a humble manner
- : to address God or a god with adoration, confession, supplication, or thanksgiving
