Are you sure about that?
Or as God did he know the heart of the Pharisee and was responding according to his divine knowledge?
Yes, I am sure. Let me explain something.
Subjective= a person's feelings/opinions/view.
Semantics= the meanings/sentiments/spirit that are conveyed in the words people think and speak.
Analysis= examination.
Therefore, anytime someone speaks, and we seek to understand their expressed sentiments, we are using subjective semantic analysis in some degree of examination of their terms.
Now, I am sure about Jesus analyzing what the Pharisee said within himself because scripture says he did by conveying that Jesus responds to what the pharisee said within himself.
Now when the Pharisee which had bidden him saw it, he spake within himself, saying, This man, if he were a prophet, would have known who and what manner of woman this is that toucheth him: for she is a sinner. And Jesus answering said unto him, Simon, I have somewhat to say unto thee.
Did Jesus know his heart by analyzing what the pharisee said? Yes, because elsewhere Jesus said, "out of the heart proceed evil thoughts".
As for divine knowledge, I would think Jesus knows everyone's heart. That doesn't mean he doesn't examine everyone's personal sentiments. Scripture even says we will be judged by what we say.
I'm going with his divinity knowing the hearts of men, rather than subjective semantic analysis.
They're not mutually exclusive, and respectfully, I think you simply misunderstand me.
I'm not much on "subjective semantic analysis" in preference to the all-knowing God.
Your God is too small.
The all-knowing God invented subjective semantic analysis when He created the ability to speak and understand what others say.
So just take a moment and think about this. When you say you're not much on subjective semantic analysis it simply means you're not much on trying to understand the sentiments that others express.
Contraire. . .love for/of God, by God's power, is more meaningful.
I didn't say it wasn't (strawman argument). I'm just saying we can't Love God or others without feeling Love.
Your view of God subjects him to human subjective semantics.
He is subject to nothing.
This is where you are mistaken. I never implied that God is subject to anything. My expressed sentiment that God "
had to" make mankind with human feelings for us to know Him,
was never a mandate as you have assumed. It's simply an observation that to personally know God as Love, God "Had to" make mankind able to feel Love. It's the same as saying God made mankind able to feel love so that mankind could know God as Love.