Questions about Luke 16:16

Acts29 said:

2. Since the time of John the kingdom of God has been preached. What does this mean? I understand John was the very first person to whom the Christ was revealed. Did he preach the kingdom of God 2000 years ago? I know he preached repentance, but did he preach the kingdom of God?

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From gotquestions.org:
The phrase “kingdom of God” occurs 68 times in 10 different New Testament books, while “kingdom of heaven” occurs only 32 times, and only in the Gospel of Matthew. You might read the Gospels and elsewhere in the NT for the context and meaning.

As for your question about the law and the prophets, the law may mean the five books of the Torah, although laws and admonitions may be found in Proverbs, Psalms, the Talmud, etc. The prophets are recorded in the books of Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Isaiah etc.

Acts29 said:

Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it. 17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one tittle of the law to fail.

(I included verse 17 as it may, or may not be, the context for verse 16.)

1. "The law and the prophets were until John." What does this mean? Does it mean the law and prophets ended with John? I understand the "law" in Jesus' day simply means scripture today. (Jesus quotes Psalms in John 10:34 and calls in the law.) Clearly, much of what is written in the prophets has not yet come to pass. So, how could the prophets be ended since heaven and earth will not pass away until all scripture is fulfilled?

2. Since the time of John the kingdom of God has been preached. What does this mean? I understand John was the very first person to whom the Christ was revealed. Did he preach the kingdom of God 2000 years ago? I know he preached repentance, but did he preach the kingdom of God?

3. Since the time of John everyone is pressing into the kingdom. Has this ever happened? I understand that "everyone" does not have to mean every single human on earth. But, it does indicate a very significant revival so to speak. Has this ever happened yet?

4. Everyone is "pressing" into it. The word pressing here actually means "forcing." This implies a very serious sense of urgency. Has this ever happened?

5. Is there any chance, in your mind, that Jesus is prophesying here? Meaning, Jesus was saying John is coming first, before His coming again, and from that point everyone will press/force their way into the kingdom? If John the Baptist were to come again, everyone, including the unbelievers, would know Jesus is about to come. Thus, the sense of urgency to press into the kingdom before it is too late. Any chance of that being what Jesus meant? Thanks.

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The Law and the Prophets are the Old Covenant . We are now in the New Covenant through regeneration by Jesus Christ of Nazareth. Blessings

dqhall said:

From gotquestions.org:
The phrase “kingdom of God” occurs 68 times in 10 different New Testament books, while “kingdom of heaven” occurs only 32 times, and only in the Gospel of Matthew. You might read the Gospels and elsewhere in the NT for the context and meaning.

As for your question about the law and the prophets, the law may mean the five books of the Torah, although laws and admonitions may be found in Proverbs, Psalms, the Talmud, etc. The prophets are recorded in the books of Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Isaiah etc.

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Ps. speaking of the gods....is first spoken of here
Ex 22:28 Thou shalt not revile the gods, nor curse the ruler of thy people. {gods: or, judges }

Acts29 said:

4. Everyone is "pressing" into it. The word pressing here actually means "forcing." This implies a very serious sense of urgency. Has this ever happened?

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While all questions about what is in the gospels will yield over time to continued reading through the gospels, this one seems to be a form of your central question (or at least repeated in some other questions in a way), and it seems to me in context that "From the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven has suffered violence, and the violent take it by force." means that people seeing Christ in person(!) could respond even without much faith and press inward towards Him (physically even) to obtain the Kingdom, at that very moment, because He was literally right in front of them, accessible. As you read, repeatedly over and over the crowds literally press in on Him, in person, and He has to many times go away from them, or do something like stand on a hill or get in a boat (or even speak to them from a boat at least once). See, today, we can only enter by faith, but then, when He was there in person, people could literally see Him and rush forward to take what He offered even without a great act of faith, by 'force' or 'violence' as it were, figuratively.

They could literally press in on Him physically.

Acts29 said:

Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it. 17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one tittle of the law to fail.

(I included verse 17 as it may, or may not be, the context for verse 16.)

1. "The law and the prophets were until John." What does this mean? Does it mean the law and prophets ended with John? I understand the "law" in Jesus' day simply means scripture today. (Jesus quotes Psalms in John 10:34 and calls in the law.) Clearly, much of what is written in the prophets has not yet come to pass. So, how could the prophets be ended since heaven and earth will not pass away until all scripture is fulfilled?

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At the time Jesus was speaking in Luke 16 - the very latest publically known prophet known to all Israel was John. The people recognized him as a legitimate prophet of God.

But later in the NT we see prophets (Agabus for example and almost everyone in 1 Cor 14 "with a revelation"). Eph 4 says that these 1 Cor 12 gifts of the Spirit were to continue until the second coming.

Maria Billingsley said:

The Law and the Prophets are the Old Covenant

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1. No text in the Bible says "The Law and the prophets are the Old Covenant".
2. The NEW Covenant is found in Jeremiah 31:31-34 and quoted verbatim in Hebrews 8 - unchanged.

BobRyan said:

1. No text in the Bible says "The Law and the prophets are the Old Covenant".
2. The NEW Covenant is found in Jeremiah 31:31-34 and quoted verbatim in Hebrews 8 - unchanged.

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Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John.
The New Covenant is through Jesus Christ of Nazareth.
Be blessed.

Acts29 said:

Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it. 17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one tittle of the law to fail.

(I included verse 17 as it may, or may not be, the context for verse 16.)

1. "The law and the prophets were until John." What does this mean? Does it mean the law and prophets ended with John? I understand the "law" in Jesus' day simply means scripture today. (Jesus quotes Psalms in John 10:34 and calls in the law.) Clearly, much of what is written in the prophets has not yet come to pass. So, how could the prophets be ended since heaven and earth will not pass away until all scripture is fulfilled?

2. Since the time of John the kingdom of God has been preached. What does this mean? I understand John was the very first person to whom the Christ was revealed. Did he preach the kingdom of God 2000 years ago? I know he preached repentance, but did he preach the kingdom of God?

3. Since the time of John everyone is pressing into the kingdom. Has this ever happened? I understand that "everyone" does not have to mean every single human on earth. But, it does indicate a very significant revival so to speak. Has this ever happened yet?

4. Everyone is "pressing" into it. The word pressing here actually means "forcing." This implies a very serious sense of urgency. Has this ever happened?

5. Is there any chance, in your mind, that Jesus is prophesying here? Meaning, Jesus was saying John is coming first, before His coming again, and from that point everyone will press/force their way into the kingdom? If John the Baptist were to come again, everyone, including the unbelievers, would know Jesus is about to come. Thus, the sense of urgency to press into the kingdom before it is too late. Any chance of that being what Jesus meant? Thanks.

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Hi Acts 29,

The law and prophets were until John.....Jesus fulfilled the law, the OT prophets were finished, however what they prophesied was still to come, as regards to Jesus dying, rising and ascending, plus the OT prophecies of the coming rulership of Christ is still to come.

The prophets of the Body of Christ are from the ascended Lord - `he gave some to be ...prophets..` (Eph. 4: 11) and are for the equipping and building up of the Body.

As to the kingdom/rulership of God being preached, that is what Jesus was doing, preaching that the king had arrived and they were to receive His rulership. The people of His day were pressing in to receive Him.

regards, Marilyn.

Acts29 said:

I understand the new covenant. Why do you say the law and prophets are the old covenant?

1 Corinthians 14:20 Brethren, do not be children in understanding; however, in malice be babes, but in understanding be mature. 21 In the law it is written: “With men of other tongues and other lips I will speak to this people; And yet, for all that, they will not hear Me,” says the Lord. 22 Therefore tongues are for a sign ...

Paul seemed to think the scriptures still had value in the new covenant.

2 Timothy 3:16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness

The only "scriptures" at that time were the books of the OT. Perhaps I misunderstand your statement.

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Yes, it had value however it has no power. The New Covenant was brought forth by Jesus Christ of Nazareth to restore that which was lost through Adam, His Holy Spirit. The Torah was proof that what the prophets spoke of had been fulfilled by the King. This is how the Bereans came to their knowledge of the truth. By searching scripture and its fulfillment through Christ.
Blessings

Acts29 said:

Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it. 17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one tittle of the law to fail.

(I included verse 17 as it may, or may not be, the context for verse 16.)

1. "The law and the prophets were until John." What does this mean? Does it mean the law and prophets ended with John? I understand the "law" in Jesus' day simply means scripture today. (Jesus quotes Psalms in John 10:34 and calls in the law.) Clearly, much of what is written in the prophets has not yet come to pass. So, how could the prophets be ended since heaven and earth will not pass away until all scripture is fulfilled?

2. Since the time of John the kingdom of God has been preached. What does this mean? I understand John was the very first person to whom the Christ was revealed. Did he preach the kingdom of God 2000 years ago? I know he preached repentance, but did he preach the kingdom of God?

3. Since the time of John everyone is pressing into the kingdom. Has this ever happened? I understand that "everyone" does not have to mean every single human on earth. But, it does indicate a very significant revival so to speak. Has this ever happened yet?

4. Everyone is "pressing" into it. The word pressing here actually means "forcing." This implies a very serious sense of urgency. Has this ever happened?

5. Is there any chance, in your mind, that Jesus is prophesying here? Meaning, Jesus was saying John is coming first, before His coming again, and from that point everyone will press/force their way into the kingdom? If John the Baptist were to come again, everyone, including the unbelievers, would know Jesus is about to come. Thus, the sense of urgency to press into the kingdom before it is too late. Any chance of that being what Jesus meant? Thanks.

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John the Baptist called for people repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand (Matthew 3:2), so he was calling people to return to obedience to God's law, not telling people that God's law had ended and that they needed to stop repenting, so Luke 16:16 should not be understood in a way that completely undermines his message. Furthermore, Jesus proceeded to say in that since the time of John the Kingdom of God has been preached, which is again the message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which is the Gospel that Jesus continued to preach after John had been arrested (Matthew 4:12-23), so Jesus was speaking about the Law and the Prophets coming to the point and John and then continuing, not about it ending with him. In Luke 16:17, Jesus said that that it would be easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for the least part of the law to fail, so clearly he was not speaking about a law that he thought had already ended. In addition, in Luke 16:18, Jesus continued to teach obedience to God's law in regard to the topic of adultery, so I'm not seeing how Luke 16:16 can be used to justify saying that the Law and the Prophets have ended without ignoring the context that clearly says that opposite, especially when Jesus continued to live in sinless obedience to God's law.

The Kingdom of God is where the nature of God is multiplied. Every kingdom has laws that govern the conduct of its citizens and God's law is straightforwardly the law of God's Kingdom. The reasons that God has for choosing to give the laws that He has given teach us about the nature of who He is. For example, God's righteous laws teach us about how to act in accordance with God's righteousness, and a God who commanded against committing adultery would not have the same nature as a God who commanded to commit adultery. The Bible often uses the same terms to describe the nature of God as it does to describe the nature of God's law, which is again because it is God's instructions for how to express His nature, such as with it being holy, righteous, and good (Romans 7:22), and God's law could not be accurately described as such if it did not teach us how to do what is holy, righteous, and good in accordance with God's nature. So the Kingdom of God is spread by calling for people to repent and return to obedience to God's law, thereby multiplying the nature of God. The Hebrew word "peretz" means to burst forth, such as water bursting from a dam, and it is my belief that this is the Hebraic concept that was being expressed in Greek in regard to describing the Kingdom of God as bursting forth and forcefully advancing. The only way that laws for how to act in accordance with God's nature can be ended would be to first end God.

Maria Billingsley said:

Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John.
The New Covenant is through Jesus Christ of Nazareth.
Be blessed.

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The New Covenant is through Christ and He gives it to us in Jer 31:31-34 saying "I will make a New Covenant... THIS IS the Covenant I will make ..." just as Heb 8 also points out telling us - it is Christ speaking at Sinai.

Acts29 said:

Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it. 17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one tittle of the law to fail.

(I included verse 17 as it may, or may not be, the context for verse 16.)

1. "The law and the prophets were until John." What does this mean? Does it mean the law and prophets ended with John? I understand the "law" in Jesus' day simply means scripture today. (Jesus quotes Psalms in John 10:34 and calls in the law.) Clearly, much of what is written in the prophets has not yet come to pass. So, how could the prophets be ended since heaven and earth will not pass away until all scripture is fulfilled?

2. Since the time of John the kingdom of God has been preached. What does this mean? I understand John was the very first person to whom the Christ was revealed. Did he preach the kingdom of God 2000 years ago? I know he preached repentance, but did he preach the kingdom of God?

3. Since the time of John everyone is pressing into the kingdom. Has this ever happened? I understand that "everyone" does not have to mean every single human on earth. But, it does indicate a very significant revival so to speak. Has this ever happened yet?

4. Everyone is "pressing" into it. The word pressing here actually means "forcing." This implies a very serious sense of urgency. Has this ever happened?

5. Is there any chance, in your mind, that Jesus is prophesying here? Meaning, Jesus was saying John is coming first, before His coming again, and from that point everyone will press/force their way into the kingdom? If John the Baptist were to come again, everyone, including the unbelievers, would know Jesus is about to come. Thus, the sense of urgency to press into the kingdom before it is too late. Any chance of that being what Jesus meant? Thanks.

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Do you believe that you yourself... is the John that is to come?....The Final act being Chap 29.?

Fix your eyes on Jesus and he will explain to you that John ( Elijah ) has already come.

Acts29 said:

Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it. 17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one tittle of the law to fail.

(I included verse 17 as it may, or may not be, the context for verse 16.)

1. "The law and the prophets were until John." What does this mean? Does it mean the law and prophets ended with John? I understand the "law" in Jesus' day simply means scripture today. (Jesus quotes Psalms in John 10:34 and calls in the law.) Clearly, much of what is written in the prophets has not yet come to pass. So, how could the prophets be ended since heaven and earth will not pass away until all scripture is fulfilled?

2. Since the time of John the kingdom of God has been preached. What does this mean? I understand John was the very first person to whom the Christ was revealed. Did he preach the kingdom of God 2000 years ago? I know he preached repentance, but did he preach the kingdom of God?

3. Since the time of John everyone is pressing into the kingdom. Has this ever happened? I understand that "everyone" does not have to mean every single human on earth. But, it does indicate a very significant revival so to speak. Has this ever happened yet?

4. Everyone is "pressing" into it. The word pressing here actually means "forcing." This implies a very serious sense of urgency. Has this ever happened?

5. Is there any chance, in your mind, that Jesus is prophesying here? Meaning, Jesus was saying John is coming first, before His coming again, and from that point everyone will press/force their way into the kingdom? If John the Baptist were to come again, everyone, including the unbelievers, would know Jesus is about to come. Thus, the sense of urgency to press into the kingdom before it is too late. Any chance of that being what Jesus meant? Thanks.

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1. The Jesus was the last prophet, the new covenant begins with Jesus as does the Kingdom of God and the church. The law has two meanings one is the Decalogue the other is the ceremonial laws, while the 10 commandments remain the same and are summed up by Jesus saying love God and your neighbor as yourself, the ceremonial laws including circumcision have passed away.

2. The Kingdom of God is started with Jesus, the King, starting the church which is the kingdom of God on earth.

3. People are now pressing into the church which is the Kingdom.

4. People are accepting Jesus as their Savior. We have an urgency to accept and serve Him.

5. No John the baptist was actually fulfilling the O.T. prophesy of Elijah's return to pave the way for the Messiah Jesus. None of us is to know the time of the return of Jesus so we are all to be ready at all times.

Acts29 said:

Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it. 17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one tittle of the law to fail.

(I included verse 17 as it may, or may not be, the context for verse 16.)

1. "The law and the prophets were until John." What does this mean? Does it mean the law and prophets ended with John? I understand the "law" in Jesus' day simply means scripture today. (Jesus quotes Psalms in John 10:34 and calls in the law.) Clearly, much of what is written in the prophets has not yet come to pass. So, how could the prophets be ended since heaven and earth will not pass away until all scripture is fulfilled?

2. Since the time of John the kingdom of God has been preached. What does this mean? I understand John was the very first person to whom the Christ was revealed. Did he preach the kingdom of God 2000 years ago? I know he preached repentance, but did he preach the kingdom of God?

3. Since the time of John everyone is pressing into the kingdom. Has this ever happened? I understand that "everyone" does not have to mean every single human on earth. But, it does indicate a very significant revival so to speak. Has this ever happened yet?

4. Everyone is "pressing" into it. The word pressing here actually means "forcing." This implies a very serious sense of urgency. Has this ever happened?

5. Is there any chance, in your mind, that Jesus is prophesying here? Meaning, Jesus was saying John is coming first, before His coming again, and from that point everyone will press/force their way into the kingdom? If John the Baptist were to come again, everyone, including the unbelievers, would know Jesus is about to come. Thus, the sense of urgency to press into the kingdom before it is too late. Any chance of that being what Jesus meant? Thanks.

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The gospel of the kingdom is The good news that the Son of God is finally sent to the flesh to Israel. Thru God's grace he came.

Israel needed to respond in faith to that grace, which is repent and be baptized.

If they respond in faith, Jesus as the Son of God would usher Israel into their promised kingdom.

It is then that their sins will finally be remitted (Acts 3:19)

disciple Clint said:

1. The Jesus was the last prophet, the new covenant begins with Jesus as does the Kingdom of God and the church. The law has two meanings one is the Decalogue the other is the ceremonial laws, while the 10 commandments remain the same and are summed up by Jesus saying love God and your neighbor as yourself, the ceremonial laws including circumcision have passed away.

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In Jeremiah 31:33, the New Covenant involves following the Torah, which refers to more than just the Ten Commandments. Many of the laws other than the Ten Commandments have nothing in particular to do with being ceremonial, such as the the greatest two commandments and laws against rape, kidnapping, and showing favoritism. Furthermore, if everything but the Ten Commandments has passed away, then that would include the greatest two commandments. In Matthew 22:36-40, Jesus summed up all of the Law and the Prophets as being about how to love God and our neighbor, not just the Ten Commandments. The Bible never even refers to the category of ceremonial law.

In Psalms 119:160, all of God's righteous laws are eternal, not just ten of them. The reasons that God had for choosing to give the laws that He gave teach us us the nature of who He is, such as a God who commanded against committing adultery would not have the same nature as a God who commanded to commit adultery. So the only way that any of God's eternal laws could pass away is if what they teach us about God's eternal nature is no longer true. In Matthew 5:17-19, Jesus specifically said that he cam not to abolish the law and warned those who would relax the least part of it or teach others to do the same, so by relaxing the vast majority of God's eternal laws, you are calling Jesus a liar and disregarding his warning. Likewise, in Romans 3:31, our faith does not abolish God's law, but rather our faith upholds it.

Soyeong said:

In Jeremiah 31:33, the New Covenant involves following the Torah, which refers to more than just the Ten Commandments. Many of the laws other than the Ten Commandments have nothing in particular to do with being ceremonial, such as the the greatest two commandments and laws against rape, kidnapping, and showing favoritism. Furthermore, if everything but the Ten Commandments has passed away, then that would include the greatest two commandments. In Matthew 22:36-40, Jesus summed up all of the Law and the Prophets as being about how to love God and our neighbor, not just the Ten Commandments. The Bible never even refers to the category of ceremonial law.

In Psalms 119:160, all of God's righteous laws are eternal, not just ten of them. The reasons that God had for choosing to give the laws that He gave teach us us the nature of who He is, such as a God who commanded against committing adultery would not have the same nature as a God who commanded to commit adultery. So the only way that any of God's eternal laws could pass away is if what they teach us about God's eternal nature is no longer true. In Matthew 5:17-19, Jesus specifically said that he cam not to abolish the law and warned those who would relax the least part of it or teach others to do the same, so by relaxing the vast majority of God's eternal laws, you are calling Jesus a liar and disregarding his warning. Likewise, in Romans 3:31, our faith does not abolish God's law, but rather our faith upholds it.

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When we have a new covenant, what happens to the provisions of the old covenant? Simple, the are replaced by the provisions of the new covenant, they are no longer in effect. Jesus affirmed the Decalogue and summed it up as love God and love you neighbor as yourself. The only laws affirmed by Jesus were in the Decalogue, the other 613 laws, most of which were invented by man not by God under the justification that they were for the purpose of building a fence around the law of God to prevent any possible violation. God allowed those laws to exist until the new covenant, just as he allowed the law about divorce exist until Jesus correct it. We are operating under a new covenant Paul makes it very clear that the old laws no longer apply and the we are saved by grace and faith and nothing of what we do.

Acts29 said:

Luke 16:16 The law and the prophets were until John. Since that time the kingdom of God has been preached, and everyone is pressing into it. 17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one tittle of the law to fail.

(I included verse 17 as it may, or may not be, the context for verse 16.)

1. "The law and the prophets were until John." What does this mean? Does it mean the law and prophets ended with John? I understand the "law" in Jesus' day simply means scripture today. (Jesus quotes Psalms in John 10:34 and calls in the law.) Clearly, much of what is written in the prophets has not yet come to pass. So, how could the prophets be ended since heaven and earth will not pass away until all scripture is fulfilled?

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It's a real good and legitimate question. My own thought is that all of the OT prophets and leaders were subservient to Christ's 1st Coming and death on the cross. None of them could bring Eternal Life to Israel, even though they were kept in covenant relationship with God. So everything the Law and the Prophets were designed to do was complete Israel's covenant with God by ushering in the means of Eternal Life.

Acts29 said:

2. Since the time of John the kingdom of God has been preached. What does this mean? I understand John was the very first person to whom the Christ was revealed. Did he preach the kingdom of God 2000 years ago? I know he preached repentance, but did he preach the kingdom of God?

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It's a little confusing, but here's my take on it. The Law and the Prophets presented a covenant relationship between God and Israel based on the Law. But it would not result in Eternal Life until the Messianic Kingdom comes.

This anticipation of the Messiah continued up until John, the messenger of Messiah. After John the Baptism the Gospel of the Messianic Kingdom began to be preached by Jesus and by his Apostles.

And this Kingdom was preached even before the cross to the Jews, who proceeded to try to enter the Kingdom by their own independent efforts, apart from dependence on God. They were promoting self-autonomy in the name of trust in God.

Acts29 said:

3. Since the time of John everyone is pressing into the kingdom. Has this ever happened? I understand that "everyone" does not have to mean every single human on earth. But, it does indicate a very significant revival so to speak. Has this ever happened yet?

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It is not "revival" Jesus spoke of, but rather, of the Pharisees who thought they could "earn" their way into Heaven through good works. They did good deeds while retaining a relationship apart from God.

Their relationship with God was pretend and fake. They tried "forcing* their way into God's Kingdom, by taking down Christ, who represented the opposite way of achieving this. By default they hoped to retain their position in Israel, representing God's Kingdom on earth.

Acts29 said:

4. Everyone is "pressing" into it. The word pressing here actually means "forcing." This implies a very serious sense of urgency. Has this ever happened?

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Yes, the Jews who rejected Jesus were forcing their way into retaining Israel's place, even though God had rejected them as hypocrites. Instead of repenting they wanted to take away Christ, the messenger of God's rebuke.

Nominal, pretend Christians today also try to "force" their way into God's Kingdom, by retaining their place in the traditional churches. They wish to remove those who maintain a true message of faith and dependence upon God.

They don't really believe in a spiritual relationship with God, but wish to emulate their idea of what a "good Christian life" is. This is just a form of modern idolatry, where they can fashion their own idea of "Christianity," and put their own words into it.

Acts29 said:

5. Is there any chance, in your mind, that Jesus is prophesying here? Meaning, Jesus was saying John is coming first, before His coming again, and from that point everyone will press/force their way into the kingdom? If John the Baptist were to come again, everyone, including the unbelievers, would know Jesus is about to come. Thus, the sense of urgency to press into the kingdom before it is too late. Any chance of that being what Jesus meant? Thanks.

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No, but I do believe that history repeats itself. Just as Israel became a temporal representation of God's Kingdom on earth for awhile, and then apostacized, so also European Civilization and beyond have entered also into this temporal representation of God's Kingdom, through the international Church.

And we also will see an apostasy in European Civilization, and across the world, I believe. This will mean a day of reckoning for the whole world, just as it meant a day of reckoning for Israel when they backslid and rejected Jesus. Yes, the present day apostasy of the Church means "the end is near!"

BobRyan said:

The New Covenant is through Christ and He gives it to us in Jer 31:31-34 saying "I will make a New Covenant... THIS IS the Covenant I will make ..." just as Heb 8 also points out telling us - it is Christ speaking at Sinai.

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I am guessing you are trying to tell me that the New Covenant was established before Jesus Christ of Nazareth was born?