The Two Times when Jesus was confronted with "honor Mary Mother of Jesus" statements

All4Christ said:

I’m sorry that you see this as an inquisition power trip or me trying to lord over your faith. That was never my intent.

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Thats fine, its just how you were coming across.

prodromos said:

And you are doing nothing to help anyone understand. Live with it.

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You just left me without any answer on the other Mary thread while this Mary thread goes off topic and after me for absolutely no reason and you believe yourself to be helping?

Too funny

2BeholdHisGlory said:

Thats fine, its just how you were coming across.

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Rest assured I didn’t mean it to be an inquisition. I was just trying to understand, as that is a key step for a successful discussion.

The topic of whether Jesus is fully God and fully man is extremely relevant to the topic of calling Mary the Mother of God, so I wanted to make sure I understood your position.

Hope you have a good night!

Nite

2BeholdHisGlory said:

You just left me without any answer on the other Mary thread while this Mary thread goes off topic and after me for absolutely no reason and you believe yourself to be helping?

Too funny

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Which thread was that? I have found that CF often doesn't send me notification when someone replies to a post of mine.

thecolorsblend said:

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Why did you delete you post? I actually agreed with alot of it with the exception of how you used begotten in Heb 5:5 . That pertained to the same day he was made a high priest and that did not pertain to anything on earth. But I thought the rest was good observation.

Jipsah said:

Sorry, that's not the view of Nicene Christianity. Mary did not bring forth "a man", she brought forth the Lord, Jesus Christ, the only Son of God,
eternally begotten of the Father,
God from God, Light from Light,
true God from true God,
begotten, not made,
of one being with the Father.
Through him all things were made.
For us men and for our salvation
he came down from heaven;
by the power of the Holy Spirit
he became incarnate of the Virgin Mary, and was made man...

You can't separate our Lord into "a man" and God. He is fully God and fully Man.

And that, I think, is where most Prots go foul. They don't really believe in the Incarnation, and that Jesus isn't really God Himself, but rather a man through Whom God chose to work.

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I saw you sign on a couple times today on other threads I didnt want you to think I did not answer you, I did in case you are missing your notifications too.

prodromos said:

Which thread was that? I have found that CF often doesn't send me notification when someone replies to a post of mine.

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Is there salvation without Mary?

2BeholdHisGlory said:

Is there salvation without Mary?

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Your last post did not ask a question, so how did I leave you without an answer?

prodromos said:

Your last post did not ask a question, so how did I leave you without an answer?

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I know, you stated to me here

prodromos said:

And you are doing nothing to help anyone understand. Live with it.

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And so when I did you gave no answer to me when I did anyway.

Luke 1:
48 he has been mindful
of the humble state of his servant.
From now on all generations will call me blessed

BobRyan said:

Luke 11:
28 But He said, ..blessed are those who hear the word of God and observe it.”

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Christ Himself has told you why all generations call her blessed.

Jipsah said:

Anything folks had rarther wasn't in Scripture is a "Latin addition", or says something else in ther Greek.

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??? Not sure what you mean.

Syllogism aside, there is not one verse of Scripture that calls Mary, "Mother of God."

Being called "blessed [in] all generations" does not mean "Mother of God."

I see no Protestants denying Mary received grace from God and that she should be call a blessed person. Sinless - not in Scripture. Prayed to - not according to Scripture. "Full of grace" - not in Scripture.

Since God has no mother, why would we want to say anything to confuse this truth for those who would take this terminology and run with it to extremes (which has certainly been done)?

Asking for Scripture that specifically substantiates such a phrase hardly denotes a denial of the God-Man, any more than the supported use of the phrase automatically denies the fact that God is eternal and has no father or mother (unless this is denied when one says "Mother of God").

Human traditions - pseudo-authority, nothing more... Confuses Truth.

FenderTL5 said:

Christ Himself has told you why all generations call her blessed.

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So, why "Full of Grace" and "Mother of God," when the first is not in Scripture, and the latter was apparently made up to argue against a heresy about Jesus Christ? These additions to Scripture quite frequently turn into heresies themselves. Similarly a Protestant saying comes to mind, but first things first.

.

FenderTL5 said:

Luke 1:
48 he has been mindful
of the humble state of his servant.
From now on all generations will call me blessed


Christ Himself has told you why all generations call her blessed.

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I have already showed the same verse of Mary declaring things concerning herself and how it also began to come to pass in the same woman. And I am also thankful Jesus stepped in and responded to her displaced affections/blessing which seems to connects more fervently to "the paps of" him and "the womb of" him in some kind of worship of a singular woman. If not nipped in the bud from the beginning could result in the worship of the creature (Mary) over the Creator (or the very "fruit of" her womb) and making her larger then she is as it pertains to Him (who was before her) who created her.He simply corrected her in the sense of being blessed more literally so and/or more singularly so (in the "mother of" him/the "paps of" him/the womb "of him" sense) and equally includes all who do the will of God (in the plural) to the same status of blessed as it pertains to those who do the will of God, and these also called equally his mother and brethren making no distinction (as is made today). Jesus did this in the two pictures pointed out.

To me, she represents those who bless Mary (in the singular sense) for the wrong reason (the things that relate to her paps and womb) which do pertain to Christ being made flesh (as he was made of a woman made under the law (no doubt) but he is showing that these people manifesting much later who appear to be represented by this woman are off in their displaced affections because we see no evidence of any of it in the letters by the apostles.

thecolorsblend said:

I typically delete everything I post after a few days.

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Thats sad, you had some wonderful things to say, but I understand.

2BeholdHisGlory said:

If not nipped in the bud from the beginning could result in the worship of the creature (Mary) over the Creator (or the very "fruit of" her womb) and making her larger then she is as it pertains to Him (who was before her) who created her.

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Worship of Mary certainly is wrong. Orthodox, Catholic, Anglican, Lutheran and other churches that use the term Mother of God all disapprove of worship of Mary.

Worshipping her over Jesus is not even remotely taught by any of those churches.

Honestly it is very frustrating when people assume that we worship Mary. To think that she we call her blessed because of her bearing Jesus is also wrong, although that certainly was a blessing. It is because of her hearing the Word of God and following it.

All that said, again, the term Mother of God is a theological statement affirming Jesus being God incarnate - fully man and fully God. It is not an honorific blessing her for bearing Christ.

All4Christ said:

I take it I’m the inquisition?

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You don't happen to be Spanish do you?