Should Ezekiel 38-39 be taken literally?

DavidPT · Apr 4, 2021

Take the following for example.

Ezekiel 38:4 And I will turn thee back, and put hooks into thy jaws, and I will bring thee forth, and all thine army, horses and horsemen, all of them clothed with all sorts of armour, even a great company with bucklers and shields, all of them handling swords:
5 Persia, Ethiopia, and Libya with them; all of them with shield and helmet:
6 Gomer, and all his bands; the house of Togarmah of the north quarters, and all his bands: and many people with thee.

There are some that apparently take this literally, thus an ancient battle is in view here, therefore this has already been fulfilled in the past.

These same ones ignore the following though, or if they don't ignore it, they apparently misunderstand it then.

Ezekiel 38:8 After many days thou shalt be visited: in the latter years thou shalt come into the land that is brought back from the sword, and is gathered out of many people, against the mountains of Israel, which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations, and they shall dwell safely all of them.

Ezekiel 38:16 And thou shalt come up against my people of Israel, as a cloud to cover the land; it shall be in the latter days, and I will bring thee against my land, that the heathen may know me, when I shall be sanctified in thee, O Gog, before their eyes.

This clearly says that these things will happen in the latter years, the latter days, IOW the last days, the same last days mentioned in the NT. Apparently, there can't even be any latter years, last days, until there is a first coming of Christ first, therefore placing these events sometime post the first coming. Obviously, there has already been a first coming, but what since then up until now could possibly explain verses 4-6? Not only does that need to be explained, so does the following, not to mention, events recorded in ch 39 as well.

Ezekiel 38:17 Thus saith the Lord GOD; Art thou he of whom I have spoken in old time by my servants the prophets of Israel, which prophesied in those days many years that I would bring thee against them?
18 And it shall come to pass at the same time when Gog shall come against the land of Israel, saith the Lord GOD, that my fury shall come up in my face.
19 For in my jealousy and in the fire of my wrath have I spoken, Surely in that day there shall be a great shaking in the land of Israel;
20 So that the fishes of the sea, and the fowls of the heaven, and the beasts of the field, and all creeping things that creep upon the earth, and all the men that are upon the face of the earth, shall shake at my presence, and the mountains shall be thrown down, and the steep places shall fall, and every wall shall fall to the ground.
21 And I will call for a sword against him throughout all my mountains, saith the Lord GOD: every man's sword shall be against his brother.
22 And I will plead against him with pestilence and with blood; and I will rain upon him, and upon his bands, and upon the many people that are with him, an overflowing rain, and great hailstones, fire, and brimstone.
23 Thus will I magnify myself, and sanctify myself; and I will be known in the eyes of many nations, and they shall know that I am the LORD.

When has anything like this ever happened, in any sense, since the first coming up until now?

If nothing involves a literal ancient battle already fulfilled, but that what is recorded in Ezekiel 38-39 is future still, are we to seriously take Ezekiel 38:4-5 in the literal sense, that this will involve ancient weaponry? Does this mean we then need to spiritualize these events instead? Not necessarily. Ezekiel could have simply been describing 21th century warfare via imagery from his day and time.

Rachel20 · Apr 4, 2021

DavidPT said:
Ezekiel could have simply been describing 21th century warfare via imagery from his day and time.

Agree, and I believe that's exactly what's going on. There were no weapons in OT times that could dissolve a person's tongue and eyes while they yet stood on their feet (Zechariah 14:12) or arrows where the intelligence was attributed to the arrow itself (Jeremiah 50:9). And Christ had to be speaking of WMD when he said there would be no flesh left alive if he didn't shorten his coming (Matthew 24:22). These wars are yet future.

Douggg · Apr 4, 2021

There is no mass grave site of Gog's army in Israel. Ezekiel 39:9-16. Proving that it has not taken place yet.

Which in turn means the 7 years that follow Gog/Magog has not happened yet. And Armageddon in v17-20. And Jesus Himself speaking in v21-29, having returned to this earth. With v28 being Matthew 24:31, the gathering of the elect - every single Jew from the nations. With all Jews being believers in Jesus as that time.

Which it all means the 70th week of Daniel 9 has not begun yet, as well.

DavidPT · Apr 4, 2021

While it's on my mind, the fact I previously submitted Ezekiel 38:17-23, if we compare something from that with something Jesus said in the Discourse, it makes you wonder, at least me anyway, if Jesus was perhaps referring to this from Ezekiel 38, in the Discourse?

Ezekiel 38:19 For in my jealousy and in the fire of my wrath have I spoken, Surely in that day there shall be a great shaking in the land of Israel;
20 So that the fishes of the sea, and the fowls of the heaven, and the beasts of the field, and all creeping things that creep upon the earth, and all the men that are upon the face of the earth, shall shake at my presence, and the mountains shall be thrown down, and the steep places shall fall, and every wall shall fall to the ground.

Compared with---

Matthew 24:2 And Jesus said unto them, See ye not all these things? verily I say unto you, There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.

The fact, the wall they call the wailing wall was not thrown down in 70 AD, that it still remains standing today, and that Ezekiel 38:20 says---and every wall shall fall to the ground---which would have to include the wailing wall, obviously---could Jesus have been meaning Ezekiel 38:20 and not 70 AD instead? Or maybe He was meaning both? IOW, 70AD was a partial fulfillment of Matthew 24:2, since not every single stone at the time was thrown down, but as of Ezekiel 38:20 whenever that gets fulfilled, it completes the prophecy recorded in Matthew 24:2.

DavidPT · Apr 4, 2021

Douggg said:
There is no mass grave site of Gog's army in Israel. Ezekiel 39:9-16. Proving that it has not taken place yet.

Which in turn means the 7 years that follow Gog/Magog has not happened yet. And Armageddon in v17-20. And Jesus Himself speaking in v21-29, having returned to this earth. With v28 being Matthew 24:31, the gathering of the elect - every single Jew from the nations. With all Jews being believers in Jesus as that time.

Which it all means the 70th week of Daniel 9 has not begun yet, as well.

Some of this I agree with you about, some of it I don't.

DavidPT · Apr 4, 2021

Rachel20 said:
Agree, and I believe that's exactly what's going on. There were no weapons in OT times that could dissolve a person's tongue and eyes while they yet stood on their feet (Zechariah 14:12) or arrows where the intelligence was attributed to the arrow itself (Jeremiah 50:9). And Christ had to be speaking of WMD when he said there would be no flesh left alive if he didn't shorten his coming (Matthew 24:22). These wars are yet future.

I tend to agree for the most part except for the part that Zechariah 14:12 involves a manmade WMD. It could, yet that verse indicates that the LORD is the one that brings this about.

Zechariah 14:12 And this shall be the plague wherewith the LORD will smite all the people that have fought against Jerusalem; Their flesh shall consume away while they stand upon their feet, and their eyes shall consume away in their holes, and their tongue shall consume away in their mouth.

Rachel20 · Apr 4, 2021

DavidPT said:
I tend to agree for the most part except that Zechariah 14:12 involves a manmade WMD. It could, yet that verse indicates that the LORD is the one that brings this about.

Zechariah 14:12 And this shall be the plague wherewith the LORD will smite all the people that have fought against Jerusalem; Their flesh shall consume away while they stand upon their feet, and their eyes shall consume away in their holes, and their tongue shall consume away in their mouth.

Yes, I believe it is a manmade WMD. What limits the Lord? If it's manmade it can't be the Lord's doing?

DavidPT · Apr 4, 2021

Rachel20 said:
Yes, I believe it is a manmade WMD. What limits the Lord? If it's manmade it can't be the Lord's doing?

I tend to think it might be something that the Lord does supernaturally, like when He destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah.
None of that involved manmade WMD at the time. Regardless whether I am correct, or that you are correct, at least both of us place this event in the future, as opposed to numerous ppl who don't. Either they try and spiritualize it, or try to explain it away by other means, anything to avoid admitting that this is speaking of an event that hasn't even happened yet.

Rachel20 · Apr 4, 2021

DavidPT said:
I tend to think it might be something that the Lord does supernaturally, like when He destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah.
None of that involved manmade WMD at the time. Regardless whether I am correct, or that you are correct, at least both of us place this event in the future, as opposed to numerous ppl who don't. Either they try and spiritualize it, or try to explain it away by other means, anything to avoid admitting that this is speaking of an event that hasn't even happened yet.

Yes, I agree. The primary thing to get is that it is yet future.

parousia70 · Apr 6, 2021

DavidPT said:
When has anything like this ever happened, in any sense, since the first coming up until now?

According to Scripture, The spirit was poured out at Pentecost in the first century, about 10 days after Jesus ascended. Thus Ezekiel 39:29 was fulfilled a long time ago, in the Last Days.

Ezekiel 39:29 And I will no longer hide My face from them, for I will pour out My Spirit on the house of Israel,’ declares the Lord GOD.”

Acts 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them.

Acts 2:15-17 These men are not drunk as you suppose. It is only the third hour of the day! No, this is what was spoken by the prophet Joel: ‘In the last days, God says, I will pour out My Spirit on all people.

DavidPT · Apr 7, 2021

parousia70 said:
According to Scripture, The spirit was poured out at Pentecost in the first century, about 10 days after Jesus ascended. Thus Ezekiel 39:29 was fulfilled a long time ago, in the Last Days.

Ezekiel 39:29 And I will no longer hide My face from them, for I will pour out My Spirit on the house of Israel,’ declares the Lord GOD.”

Acts 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them.

Acts 2:15-17 These men are not drunk as you suppose. It is only the third hour of the day! No, this is what was spoken by the prophet Joel: ‘In the last days, God says, I will pour out My Spirit on all people.

If we take into account the chronology of events in Ezekiel 39, chronologically when is what you submitted supposed to be meaning? Is it not until after the following is fulfilled first?

Ezekiel 39:21 And I will set my glory among the heathen, and all the heathen shall see my judgment that I have executed, and my hand that I have laid upon them.

This executed judgment in question is obviously referring to Ezekiel 39:3-8 which also involves verses 17-20. Has Ezekiel 39:3-8 and Ezekiel 39:17-20 already been fulfilled? If it has, that indicates it has been fulfilled somewhere from since the first coming up until now, since according to Ezekiel 38 these events will come to pass during the last days.

Of course Ezekiel 39:3-8 and Ezekiel 39:17-20 has not already been fulfilled, since there are no events in any sense that fit the requirements of those verses since the first coming up until now.

Even if we bring 70 AD into this, what you submitted from Acts 2 is clearly meaning prior to 70 AD.
It would not be until at least 70 AD that the following would have been true of the house of Israel.

Ezekiel 39:28 Then shall they know that I am the LORD their God, which caused them to be led into captivity among the heathen: but I have gathered them unto their own land, and have left none of them any more there.

How can this part---which caused them to be led into captivity among the heathen---not be because of what happened in 70 AD?

Ezekiel 39:29 Neither will I hide my face any more from them: for I have poured out my spirit upon the house of Israel, saith the Lord GOD.

How can verse 29 be meaning before 70 AD when verse 28 is not meaning before 70 AD? How can one come to a correct and logical conclusion if one ignores chronology?

Spiritual Jew · Apr 7, 2021

DavidPT said:
While it's on my mind, the fact I previously submitted Ezekiel 38:17-23, if we compare something from that with something Jesus said in the Discourse, it makes you wonder, at least me anyway, if Jesus was perhaps referring to this from Ezekiel 38, in the Discourse?

Ezekiel 38:19 For in my jealousy and in the fire of my wrath have I spoken, Surely in that day there shall be a great shaking in the land of Israel;
20 So that the fishes of the sea, and the fowls of the heaven, and the beasts of the field, and all creeping things that creep upon the earth, and all the men that are upon the face of the earth, shall shake at my presence, and the mountains shall be thrown down, and the steep places shall fall, and every wall shall fall to the ground.

Compared with---

Matthew 24:2 And Jesus said unto them, See ye not all these things? verily I say unto you, There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.

The fact, the wall they call the wailing wall was not thrown down in 70 AD, that it still remains standing today, and that Ezekiel 38:20 says---and every wall shall fall to the ground---which would have to include the wailing wall, obviously---could Jesus have been meaning Ezekiel 38:20 and not 70 AD instead? Or maybe He was meaning both? IOW, 70AD was a partial fulfillment of Matthew 24:2, since not every single stone at the time was thrown down, but as of Ezekiel 38:20 whenever that gets fulfilled, it completes the prophecy recorded in Matthew 24:2.

The wailing wall was not part of the temple buildings that Jesus said would be destroyed with no stone turned upon another. Please read Matthew 24 more carefully. The disciples were marveling specifically at the temple buildings (not any walls) and Jesus said those would be destroyed with no stone left upon another and that is what happened in 70 AD.

Jesus gave no indication whatsoever that He was talking about only some things being destroyed at one time (which turned out to be 70 AD) with the rest being destroyed at another later time. So, the wailing wall has absolutely nothing to do with the Olivet Discourse.

claninja · Apr 11, 2021

DavidPT said:
Take the following for example.

Ezekiel 38:4 And I will turn thee back, and put hooks into thy jaws, and I will bring thee forth, and all thine army, horses and horsemen, all of them clothed with all sorts of armour, even a great company with bucklers and shields, all of them handling swords:
5 Persia, Ethiopia, and Libya with them; all of them with shield and helmet:
6 Gomer, and all his bands; the house of Togarmah of the north quarters, and all his bands: and many people with thee.

There are some that apparently take this literally, thus an ancient battle is in view here, therefore this has already been fulfilled in the past.

These same ones ignore the following though, or if they don't ignore it, they apparently misunderstand it then.

Ezekiel 38:8 After many days thou shalt be visited: in the latter years thou shalt come into the land that is brought back from the sword, and is gathered out of many people, against the mountains of Israel, which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations, and they shall dwell safely all of them.

Ezekiel 38:16 And thou shalt come up against my people of Israel, as a cloud to cover the land; it shall be in the latter days, and I will bring thee against my land, that the heathen may know me, when I shall be sanctified in thee, O Gog, before their eyes.

This clearly says that these things will happen in the latter years, the latter days, IOW the last days, the same last days mentioned in the NT. Apparently, there can't even be any latter years, last days, until there is a first coming of Christ first, therefore placing these events sometime post the first coming. Obviously, there has already been a first coming, but what since then up until now could possibly explain verses 4-6? Not only does that need to be explained, so does the following, not to mention, events recorded in ch 39 as well.

Ezekiel 38:17 Thus saith the Lord GOD; Art thou he of whom I have spoken in old time by my servants the prophets of Israel, which prophesied in those days many years that I would bring thee against them?
18 And it shall come to pass at the same time when Gog shall come against the land of Israel, saith the Lord GOD, that my fury shall come up in my face.
19 For in my jealousy and in the fire of my wrath have I spoken, Surely in that day there shall be a great shaking in the land of Israel;
20 So that the fishes of the sea, and the fowls of the heaven, and the beasts of the field, and all creeping things that creep upon the earth, and all the men that are upon the face of the earth, shall shake at my presence, and the mountains shall be thrown down, and the steep places shall fall, and every wall shall fall to the ground.
21 And I will call for a sword against him throughout all my mountains, saith the Lord GOD: every man's sword shall be against his brother.
22 And I will plead against him with pestilence and with blood; and I will rain upon him, and upon his bands, and upon the many people that are with him, an overflowing rain, and great hailstones, fire, and brimstone.
23 Thus will I magnify myself, and sanctify myself; and I will be known in the eyes of many nations, and they shall know that I am the LORD.

When has anything like this ever happened, in any sense, since the first coming up until now?

If nothing involves a literal ancient battle already fulfilled, but that what is recorded in Ezekiel 38-39 is future still, are we to seriously take Ezekiel 38:4-5 in the literal sense, that this will involve ancient weaponry? Does this mean we then need to spiritualize these events instead? Not necessarily. Ezekiel could have simply been describing 21th century warfare via imagery from his day and time.

God would speak to the prophets of Israel in visions, dreams, riddles, Which was Not in clear terms like He did with Moses.

And he said, “Hear my words: If there is a prophet among you, I the Lord make myself known to him in a vision; I speak with him in a dream. Not so with my servant Moses. He is faithful in all my house. With him I speak mouth to mouth, clearly, and not in riddles, and he beholds the form of the Lord. Why then were you not afraid to speak against my servant Moses?”
Numbers 12:6-8 - Bible Gateway passage: Numbers 12:6-8 - English Standard Version

So I would argue this vision is parabolic and symbolic.

I would specifically argue it is parabolic for the return of the Jews to the land following the Babylonian century exile, leading up to the Christ’s 1st advent when the kings of the earth and nations raged, resulting in Gods sacrifice on the mountains for us, where we partake in eating of this flesh and drinking of this blood, and ultimately the receiving of the Spirit.

DavidPT · Apr 13, 2021

claninja said:
I would specifically argue it is parabolic for the return of the Jews to the land following the Babylonian century exile,

Let's assume this might be the case. That should mean all of the following is meaning after the Babylonian exile, and is meaning before and up to the 1st coming.

Ezekiel 38:8 After many days thou shalt be visited: in the latter years thou shalt come into the land that is brought back from the sword, and is gathered out of many people, against the mountains of Israel, which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations, and they shall dwell safely all of them.

The way the text reads to me, this is fulfilled first---in the latter years thou shalt come into the land that is brought back from the sword, and is gathered out of many people, against the mountains of Israel, which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations, and they shall dwell safely all of them---which then leads to this---After many days thou shalt be visited---which then involves the next verse, verse 9---Thou shalt ascend and come like a storm, thou shalt be like a cloud to cover the land, thou, and all thy bands, and many people with thee.

When has anything like verse 9 ever happened after the Babylon exile up until now? Even 70 AD doesn't explain verse 9.

Ezekiel 38:14 Therefore, son of man, prophesy and say unto Gog, Thus saith the Lord GOD; In that day when my people of Israel dwelleth safely, shalt thou not know it?
15 And thou shalt come from thy place out of the north parts, thou, and many people with thee, all of them riding upon horses, a great company, and a mighty army:
16 And thou shalt come up against my people of Israel, as a cloud to cover the land; it shall be in the latter days, and I will bring thee against my land, that the heathen may know me, when I shall be sanctified in thee, O Gog, before their eyes.
17 Thus saith the Lord GOD; Art thou he of whom I have spoken in old time by my servants the prophets of Israel, which prophesied in those days many years that I would bring thee against them?

None of this can possibly be meaning when Christ dwelt on the earth 2000 years ago, nor can it be meaning 70 AD. So when is it meaning? How can it not be meaning something that hasn't even come to pass yet? And if it hasn't come to pass yet, the part concerning when my people of Israel dwelleth safely, that has to be the case at the time when these things come to pass.

When comparing some of your conclusions with that of the texts involved, I don't see any of your conclusions remotely explaining what the texts are indicating. Take verse 15 for instance. That verse indicates thou shalt come from thy place out of the north parts, thou, and many people with thee. The fact it mentions a compass direction, in this case north, how can that not be significant, how can that be ignored and still be expected to interpret this correctly?

BABerean2 · Apr 13, 2021

DavidPT said:
Take the following for example.

Ezekiel 38:4 And I will turn thee back, and put hooks into thy jaws, and I will bring thee forth, and all thine army, horses and horsemen, all of them clothed with all sorts of armour, even a great company with bucklers and shields, all of them handling swords:
5 Persia, Ethiopia, and Libya with them; all of them with shield and helmet:
6 Gomer, and all his bands; the house of Togarmah of the north quarters, and all his bands: and many people with thee.

There are some that apparently take this literally, thus an ancient battle is in view here, therefore this has already been fulfilled in the past.

These same ones ignore the following though, or if they don't ignore it, they apparently misunderstand it then.

Ezekiel 38:8 After many days thou shalt be visited: in the latter years thou shalt come into the land that is brought back from the sword, and is gathered out of many people, against the mountains of Israel, which have been always waste: but it is brought forth out of the nations, and they shall dwell safely all of them.

Ezekiel 38:16 And thou shalt come up against my people of Israel, as a cloud to cover the land; it shall be in the latter days, and I will bring thee against my land, that the heathen may know me, when I shall be sanctified in thee, O Gog, before their eyes.

This clearly says that these things will happen in the latter years, the latter days, IOW the last days, the same last days mentioned in the NT. Apparently, there can't even be any latter years, last days, until there is a first coming of Christ first, therefore placing these events sometime post the first coming. Obviously, there has already been a first coming, but what since then up until now could possibly explain verses 4-6? Not only does that need to be explained, so does the following, not to mention, events recorded in ch 39 as well.

Ezekiel 38:17 Thus saith the Lord GOD; Art thou he of whom I have spoken in old time by my servants the prophets of Israel, which prophesied in those days many years that I would bring thee against them?
18 And it shall come to pass at the same time when Gog shall come against the land of Israel, saith the Lord GOD, that my fury shall come up in my face.
19 For in my jealousy and in the fire of my wrath have I spoken, Surely in that day there shall be a great shaking in the land of Israel;
20 So that the fishes of the sea, and the fowls of the heaven, and the beasts of the field, and all creeping things that creep upon the earth, and all the men that are upon the face of the earth, shall shake at my presence, and the mountains shall be thrown down, and the steep places shall fall, and every wall shall fall to the ground.
21 And I will call for a sword against him throughout all my mountains, saith the Lord GOD: every man's sword shall be against his brother.
22 And I will plead against him with pestilence and with blood; and I will rain upon him, and upon his bands, and upon the many people that are with him, an overflowing rain, and great hailstones, fire, and brimstone.
23 Thus will I magnify myself, and sanctify myself; and I will be known in the eyes of many nations, and they shall know that I am the LORD.

When has anything like this ever happened, in any sense, since the first coming up until now?

If nothing involves a literal ancient battle already fulfilled, but that what is recorded in Ezekiel 38-39 is future still, are we to seriously take Ezekiel 38:4-5 in the literal sense, that this will involve ancient weaponry? Does this mean we then need to spiritualize these events instead? Not necessarily. Ezekiel could have simply been describing 21th century warfare via imagery from his day and time.

See the link below.
I agree with almost everything the author says, except one detail of his conclusion.

Gog of Magog - Here a little, there a little - Prophecy

.

DavidPT · Apr 13, 2021

BABerean2 said:
See the link below.
I agree with almost everything the author says, except one detail of his conclusion.

Gog of Magog - Here a little, there a little - Prophecy

.

That article was well reasoned. I tend to agree with all of it as far as I can tell, unless I misunderstood something and agreed with something I don't, wrongly thinking I did. At least that author, unlike Douggg and some others, grasps that that battle and Armegeddon are referring to the same battle, not two different ones instead.

keras · Apr 13, 2021

DavidPT said:
That article was well reasoned. I tend to agree with all of it as far as I can tell, unless I misunderstood something and agreed with something I don't, wrongly thinking I did. At least that author, unlike Douggg and some others, grasps that that battle and Armegeddon are referring to the same battle, not two different ones instead.

The G/M attack and the battle of Armageddon are definitely two separate events.
They are described differently, the time, the place, the people, the results, all do not match.

What people do not seem to be able to realize, is how all the current inhabitants of the holy Land area, will be gone on the soon to happen Lord's Day of fiery wrath. Zephaniah 1:1-18, Jeremiah 12:14, +
Then the great Exodus of the Lord's faithful people will take place. Psalms 107, Ezekiel 34:11-16, Jeremiah 31, Romans 9:24-26, +

It will be them, whom Gog will be motivated to attack and who God will protect by wiping Gog and his army out, so as to display His power to His people. Ezekiel 38:23

DavidPT · Apr 13, 2021

keras said:
The G/M attack and the battle of Armageddon are definitely two separate events.
They are described differently, the time, the place, the people, the results, all do not match.

What people do not seem to be able to realize, is how all the current inhabitants of the holy Land area, will be gone on the soon to happen Lord's Day of fiery wrath. Zephaniah 1:1-18, Jeremiah 12:14, +
Then the great Exodus of the Lord's faithful people will take place. Psalms 107, Ezekiel 34:11-16, Jeremiah 31, Romans 9:24-26, +

It will be them, whom Gog will be motivated to attack and who God will wipe out, so as to display His power to His people. Ezekiel 38:23

IMO, this age we are currently living in is close to the end of it. How close, that I can't tell you, but it has to be close. Assuming that is true, I see it making zero sense that there will be two different battles of Biblical proportion taking place at different times prior to the end of this age. Since no one knows how much time could be left in this age, let's say, for the sake of argument, that there are less than 5 years left, as an example. How does what is recorded in Ezekiel 38 and 39, plus what is recorded in Revelation concerning the battle of Armegeddon, assuming different battles at different times, fit within this 5 year period or less?

keras · Apr 14, 2021

DavidPT said:
IMO, this age we are currently living in is close to the end of it. How close, that I can't tell you, but it has to be close. Assuming that is true, I see it making zero sense that there will be two different battles of Biblical proportion taking place at different times prior to the end of this age. Since no one knows how much time could be left in this age, let's say, for the sake of argument, that there are less than 5 years left, as an example. How does what is recorded in Ezekiel 38 and 39, plus what is recorded in Revelation concerning the battle of Armegeddon, assuming different battles at different times, fit within this 5 year period or less?

Why not? It is what the Bible prophets tell us.
What IS zero sense, is to play fast and loose with Bible truths.

I see at least 10 years left of the Church age, enough time to fulfill all the end time prophesies.

Should Ezekiel 38-39 be taken literally?

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