pasifika
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- Apr 1, 2019
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If you read it again and again it gives you an idea of what Paul is trying to say..Gentiles by birth were excluded from covenant or citizenship in Israel...that is really clear!I'm sure LoveGodsword will have his own answer--- why do you continually just post part of a passage?
Eph 2:11 Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
Eph 2:12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:
Eph 2:13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
Eph 2:14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
Eph 2:15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
Eph 2:16 And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:
It tells you there what law is done away with---contained in ordinances-----those are the Levitical laws---the ordinances that we have been saying is what was done away with. Why do you post only the parts you like and ignore the parts that say what the passage is really saying?
BUT NOW through Christ Jesus We ( Gentiles) who are far off are made close through the blood of Christ...Ephesians 2:13..
So was the Abraham covenant or Sinai covenant BEFORE or AFTER THE BLOOD OF CHRIST? ( Crucifixion)..
Did Christ shed His Blood Before the old covenant OR After?
something to think about...
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