Not in any hurry dear friend. I have been waiting for you. Although most of this has been addressed in the previous post to you including your claims of having to re-interpret v25 which was also included in the previous post to you. Did you read it? Perhaps you missed it? Recapping you were shown that the original Greek use of G1096 γέγονεν which means "HAS BECOME" in the Greek is "
perfect indicative active" (present tense) so it is impossible to be "WAS" which is past tense in the English. This is why those 15 different bible translations have translated the Greek word γέγονεν in Galatians 3:24 to "HAS BECOME" which also means "IS" because it is "
perfect indicative active" (present tense) in the Greek (links provided). Your questions are already answered also in the same post. As posted from the last post....
The scripture continues...
[24], Therefore the Law has become our tutor/schoolmaster/guardian
to lead us to Christ, that we may be justified by faith. [25], But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a tutor/schoolmaster/guardian.
Note the scriptures are not saying that God's law is abolished like some teach. It is saying that the purpose (perfect indicative active) of the law is to bring us to Christ that we might be forgiven through faith and the whole idea of the law is every time we sin in our lives it is to bring us to Christ as to be "Under the law" according to
Romans 3:19 we stand guilty before God of sin. When faith has come and the law leads us to Christ that we might be forgiven through faith we are not longer guilty before God "Under the law" but forgiven through faith *
Romans 8:1-4
Your post makes no sense here Bob, sorry I do not know what your talking about. Perhaps you need to explain yourself a little better. Romans 3 continues on from Romans 2 and in both chapters Paul is arguing all both JEWS and Gentiles are all under sin. Gentiles that do not know the law are just as much sinners not knowing the law as Jew who have been given Gods' Law and know it. This continue in Romans 3:9-10 where Paul says; [9], What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;[10], As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one. Then continues these same thoughts to Romans 3:19-20 where Paul says what it means to be "under the law" where he says " [19], Now we know that what things soever the law said, it said to them who are
under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. [20], Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight:
for by the law is the knowledge of sin. Woo did you catch that? To be "under the law" means to be guilty before God of sin. The whole world stand guilty before God because the law v20 gives us the knowledge of what sin is. Pretty powerful stuff hey? God's Word is not false teachings Bob, it is the truth of Gods' Word and we should believe and follow it over the teachings and traditions of men that break the commandments of God *Matthew 15:3-9.
The is repetition already being answered in the previous post and in the previous section of this post. The reason given that agree with the 15 bible translations there were provided earlier is that when looking at the original Greek the bible translations that the original Greek use of G1096 γέγονεν which means "HAS BECOME" in the Greek is "
perfect indicative active" (present tense) so it is impossible to be "WAS" which is past tense in the English. This is why those 15 different bible translations have translated the Greek word γέγονεν in Galatians 3:24 to "HAS BECOME" which also means "IS" in the Hebrew Greek Dictionary reference I provided in the last post because it is "
perfect indicative active" (present tense) in the Greek (links provided).
As posted from the last post....
The scripture continues...
[24], Therefore the Law has become our tutor/schoolmaster/guardian
to lead us to Christ, that we may be justified by faith. [25], But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a tutor/schoolmaster/guardian.
Note the scriptures are not saying that God's law is abolished like some teach. It is saying that the purpose (perfect indicative active) of the law is to bring us to Christ that we might be forgiven through faith and the whole idea of the law is every time we sin in our lives it is to bring us to Christ as to be "Under the law" according to
Romans 3:19 we stand guilty before God of sin. When faith has come and the law leads us to Christ that we might be forgiven through faith we are not longer guilty before God "Under the law" but forgiven through faith *
Romans 8:1-4
Your welcome and hope this is helpful dear friend.