When Jesus died( temple destroyed- His Body) was He still alive in paradise ? yes or no
And remember what He said to the criminal on the cross- Today you shall be with ME in Paradise.
hope this helps !!!
Again, it does not. Here is my position on what Jesus said to the thief:
Crucified, Jesus told the thief who perceived His Lordship, “Verily I say unto thee, to day shalt thou be with me in paradise.” Luke 23:43. I know that it is almost universally taught that Jesus and the thief were both in paradise THAT DAY, but is it so?
Yes, Jesus and the thief would be together in paradise,
at some point in time.
Jesus and the thief both died that day.
Being dead, the thief was in sheol, and still is, as Jesus said, “…no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven…” (John 3:13).
Having taken on our sins, Jesus received the wages of sin (death) “in spades” – yes, He was also dead, very dead, in sheol.
Jesus was helled in the tomb, and undertaken in the bowels of the earth, but He was not in the Hell of Dante, Milton, Baxter or Edwards. The wages of sin are death, just as God says, not a ticket to Hell.
Jesus was “helled” for three days and nights, but He was not held, for He rose from the dead, just as we know that the gift of God is eternal Life.
He told Mary on the morning of His resurrection that He had not yet risen to His Father, so His having been to paradise at that time is doubtful.
The original Greek did not have commas, so the placement of the comma depends on what did or did not happen on
that day. “Verily I say unto thee to day,…” is every bit as valid as “Verily I say unto thee, to day…”. However, the former comma placement fits better with what I have pointed out above. It really looks like Jesus and the thief did not make the scene in paradise that day, at least, the thief did not, so the verse should be punctuated so: “Verily I say unto thee to day, shalt thou be with me in paradise.” It still makes sense grammatically, and is much more consistent with the context. Those who argue that “I say unto thee to day...” is not a phrase common to the time and place, and therefore the comma should go as the KJV has it, are arguing an irrelevant point.
So, my answer is "no."