Introduction:
Sure, the tract mentions a belief or faith, but it does not mention what to believe in to be saved, and neither does it promote a belief on God's grace for salvation. It downplays this.
Does the tract promote Ephesians 2:8-9, or Titus 3:5, or Romans 4:3-5? No. It does not say that we are saved by God's grace through faith and it is a gift of God and not of works (Which is the 1st stage of salvation). This is the aspect of salvation that the tract ignores.
In other words, the tract does not promote God's grace as a way of salvation (Which is where salvation starts and it is the foundation of our faith). By reading the tract, I get no understanding on what God's grace is.
Side Note:
Yes, we are ALSO saved by Sanctification (i.e. Living holy, not justifying sin, and obeying God's commands), but this is AFTER being saved by God's grace through faith in the 1st aspect of salvation (Which is a process of salvation that is without the deeds of the Law).
Problem #1 in the Tract:
The tract falsely promotes the idea that you cannot be saved by the Sinner's Prayer or by calling upon the name of the Lord for salvation:
This is false. Special prayers to the Lord can save. The very passage the tract quotes says so. Romans 8:13 says whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.
The Bible teaches that the Sinner’s Prayer is just another way of saying to “Repent” (Which is how a person generally gets initially saved).
A Biblical Case For Repentance:
At the heart, I believe the Bible teaches that "
Repentance" means, "
Asking God for forgiveness" (Which of course naturally then leads to the "fruits of repentance", i.e. obedience to the Lord):
Important Note: While I may believe "
Repentance" does involve to a certain degree a "
change of mind" (like a person changing their mind about their old life of sin), I do not think "Repentance" exclusively means a “
change of mind.”
"
Asking God for forgiveness of sin" can either refer to: The "
Sinner's Prayer" (Initial Salvation) (Romans 10:13), and or the seasoned believer "
Confessing one's sin" (Continued Salvation) (See 1 John 1:9, 1 John 2:1).
Anyways, here are my ten points using Scripture showing that "repentance" means "asking God for forgiveness of sin.”
#1.
Acts 2:38,
The New Living Translation says in
Acts 2:38 to "repent of your sins."
Douay Rheims says in
Acts 2:38 to "Do penance."
New Life Version says in
Acts 2:38 to "Be sorry for your sins"
#2.
Luke 17:3 says, "Take heed to yourselves: If thy brother trespass against thee, rebuke him; and if he repent, forgive him." This doesn't make any sense if "repent" means believe in Jesus (as some teach) or to have a change of mind about sin (as others teach) or to exclusively forsake sin. Yes, we are to forsake sin as a part of repentance but that comes later after repentance (Which is to ask God for forgiveness of our sin). For how can we reconcile with a brother if we do not say we are sorry vs. just going on about life as if we did nothing wrong?
#3. Jesus said in
Matthew 12:41 that the Ninevites will rise up in Judgment against this generation because they repented at the preaching of Jonah. If you were to turn to Jonah chapter 3, you would be able to see in
Jonah 3:6-10 that the King of the Ninevites had told his people to:
(a) Cry out to God (i.e. Repentance) (See
Jonah 3:8).
(b) Turn from their sins or evil ways (i.e. The Natural Fruits of Repentance).
#4.
Matthew 3:6 (which then lines up with
Matthew 3:8). Also, in
Mark 1:4-5, it says John preached the "baptism of repentance" for the remission of sins (verse 4), and it then defines this "baptism of repentance" by saying they confessed their sins when they were baptized (verse 5).
#5. We see in
Acts of the Apostles 8:22 a clear example of Peter telling Simon to "repent" of his wickedness in trying to pay for the Holy Spirit. Peter is telling Simon to make a prayer towards God. For Peter says that he should pray that God might forgive him. In other words, Peter is telling Simon to repent of a one time event of wickedness by way of prayer to GOD. This only makes sense if "repent" means to "ask for forgiveness."
#6.
Ezekiel 14:6 says,
"Repent, and turn yourselves from your idols;" Repent makes the most sense here if a person is asking God for forgiveness by way of prayer instead of a person just believing in God. Naturally a person believes in God as their Savior if they are planning on forsaking their idols.
#7. We see repentance is the topic of discussion in
Luke 15 (
Luke 15:6) (
Luke 15:10); This is then followed up by the "Parable of the Prodigal Son" with the son desiring to be reconciled with his father. We learn the WAY the Prodigal Son desired to be reconciled with his father when he said,
"I will arise and go to my father, and will say unto him, Father, I have sinned against heaven, and before thee, And am no more worthy to be called thy son: make me as one of thy hired servants." (
Luke 15:18-19).
In other words, the Prodigal Son was seeking forgiveness. This ties into the point of repentance in
Luke 15:6 and
Luke 15:10.
#8.
Luke 10:13 says,
"Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! for if the mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, which have been done in you, they had a great while ago repented, sitting in sackcloth and ashes." This rules out the theory that repentance is exclusively forsaking sin. Granted, forsaking sin always follow true repentance (Asking God for forgiveness of one's sins) but forsaking sin is not repentance. The word "repented" here is describing a one time event because they "repented", sitting in sackcloth and ashes. In
Jonah 3:6 we learn that the King of Nineveh sat in sackcloth and ashes. In
Jonah 3:8, the King of Nineveh tells people to put on sackcloth, and cry mightily unto God (i.e. repentance): and then turn from their evil way (i.e. the fruits of repentance).
#9. John the Baptist says we are to bring forth fruits worthy of repentance (
Luke 3:8). Fruits are deeds (or obedience to God). How can repentance be the same thing as the fruit? Is the fruit the same thing as the tree?
#10.
Jeremiah 8:6 says, "I hearkened and heard, but they spake not aright: no man repented him of his wickedness, saying, What have I done? every one turned to his course, as the horse rusheth into the battle." Here we see the word "repented of wickedness" tied with the words, "What have I done?" This is an acknowledgement of one's sin to God as a part of asking His forgiveness.
Notable Additional Verses that Deal with Repentance
(But They Do Not Use The Word "Repent" or "Repentance"):
"For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved." (
Romans 10:13).
13 "And the publican, standing afar off, would not lift up so much as his eyes unto heaven, but smote upon his breast, saying, God be merciful to me a sinner.
14 I tell you, this man went down to his house justified rather than the other: for every one that exalteth himself shall be abased; and he that humbleth himself shall be exalted. (
Luke 18:13-14).
Proverbs 28:13 says whosoever confesses and forsakes sin shall have mercy.
Anyways, this is God's grace! It is seeking forgiveness over one's sins with the Lord Jesus! David met God's grace in Psalms 51 when he sought forgiveness with the Lord. The tax collector met God's grace in Luke 18. This is usually a part of our initial salvation, and it is the foundation of our salvation (Note: For if a believer happens to stumble on rare occasion, they cannot be forgiven by doing a good work, but they can be forgiven by confessing their sin - See 1 John 1:9).
Problem #2 in the Tract:
The tract preaches a false gospel.
The tract states...
So the tract falsely defines the gospel as a call to obedience of the faith. Then the tract also falsely implies water baptism is the gospel call of obedience in order to first be saved.
This is not the gospel that Paul preached.
Paul said,
“For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.”
(1 Corinthians 1:17).
So if Paul came not to baptize but to preach the gospel, how can the gospel be baptism? What the tract proposes makes no sense.
“For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God.” (1 Corinthians 1:18).
What is the gospel according to Scripture?
1 “Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;
2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.
3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:”
(1 Corinthians 15:1-4).
That's the gospel!
The gospel is believing that Christ died for your sins, He was buried, and He was risen three days later on your behalf for salvation.
So the tract preaches another gospel.
Yes, we need to obey as a part of salvation, but this is AFTER we are saved by God's grace (Romans 10:13, 1 John 2:1, 1 John 1:9), and in believing the gospel in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4.
Side Note:
Now, I believe the gospel can be obeyed (As it states in Scripture). We have to obey the gospel by believing the gospel of salvation as stated in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 (Which is believing Christ died for our sins, He was buried, and He was risen three days later on our behalf). There is also an aspect of the gospel that can later be obeyed, as well (Which is in the Sanctification Process). They that are Christ's have crucified the affections and lusts (Galatians 5:24). We are to walk in newness of life (Which is a type of the resurrection) (Romans 6:4).
BUT.... one needs to first be saved by God's grace through trust in Christ in that He is our Savior (This can sometimes include seeking forgiveness with the Lord Jesus by way of prayer).