King of Israel

jgr said:

Matthew 24 Greek

Matthew 24:16

3735 [e]
orē
ὄρη ;
mountains
N-ANP

Strong's Exhaustive Concordance
a mountain, hill
Probably from an obsolete oro (to rise or "rear"; perhaps akin to airo; compare ornis); a mountain (as lifting itself above the plain): -hill, mount(-ain).

Pella of the Decapolis
A mountain refuge for the first century church.

"The mountains of Gilead, near the northern edge of the region of Perea, is where Pella is located, making it a fitting destination for the call to "flee to the mountains.""

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Pella (Greek: Πέλλα, Hebrew: פחל) is located in northwest Jordan at a rich water source within the eastern foothills of the Jordan Valley, close to the modern village of Ṭabaqat Faḥl (Arabic: طبقة فحل‎) some 27km (17 miles) south of the Sea of Galilee (Lake Tiberias). The site is situated 130 km (80 miles) north of Amman, a drive of about an hour and a half (due to the difficult terrain), and is a shorter half an hour by car from Irbid, in the north of the country. Today the city's ruins, predominately temples, churches and housing, have been partially excavated by teams of archaeologists, and attract thousands of tourists annually but especially in spring, during which time the area is awash with spring flowers.[1]

Sorry but being at the base of foothills. is not flee to the mountains! Besides Matt. 24 is not the same event as Luke 21! Foothills are not mountains.

Petra on the other hand fulfills the three requirements of the place the Jews flee to ! It is in the MOUNTAINS (not foothills), it is in the wilderness and in the desert!

Also I srael will be gathered there. It is interesting in Hebrew the city of Petra is called Bozrah!

Micah 2:12
I will surely assemble, O Jacob, all of thee; I will surely gather the remnant of Israel; I will put them together as the sheep of Bozrah, as the flock in the midst of their fold: they shall make great noise by reason of the multitude of men. (The entrance to Petra is called the sheep gate)

As a matter of fact, Petra is where Jesus returns after Israel calls upon Him for salvation. The Antichrist marshalled his forces at tel-megiddo in the valley of Jezreel and marches on Petra which is a short distance. Jesus returns and wars and has a great slaughter there!

REv. 19 and

Isaiah 63:1-3 King James Version (KJV)
63 Who is this that cometh from Edom, with dyed garments from Bozrah? this that is glorious in his apparel, travelling in the greatness of his strength? I that speak in righteousness, mighty to save.

2 Wherefore art thou red in thine apparel, and thy garments like him that treadeth in the winefat?

3 I have trodden the winepress alone; and of the people there was none with me: for I will tread them in mine anger, and trample them in my fury; and their blood shall be sprinkled upon my garments, and I will stain all my raiment.

Fullness of the Gentiles said:

I never understand why people place the Gog-Magog rebellion 1,000 years before its time. The Jews do it because they don't believe the New Testament. The A-mills do it because they don't believe the mill is literal. Check in the images how Ezekiel and Revelation seem to be speaking of the same things:

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Mostly because REv. 21 is not the fulflilment of Ezekiel 38-39. The only similarities are the terms gog and magog.

But when you look at both, Ezekiel is different this way:

1. This war has a limited number of allies
REv. they gather from the globe
2. God turns Gog back and causes people to turn to teh Lord
REv. destroys all and sets up the great white throne.
3. Israel burns the weapons of war for 7 years in Ezekiel
REv. judgment is set immediately

There are many more differences . Enough so to conclude that these are two seperate events.

Also the Gog Invasion of Israel has to happen at least 3 1/2 years before th etribulation begins because Israel burns weapons of war for 7 years and we know that midway through Israel flees from Israel.

shilohsfoal said:

So why wouldn't God tell his prophets there would be many days of the Lord?
Anytime a prophet speaks of the Day of the Lord, it is singular. Not plural.

Also notice, the final convict in which many nations are judged is never called the day of the Lord.
All of those nations with Gog who are destroyed are not destroyed on the Day of the Lord?????

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Some prophecies do speak twice or even three times, I agree. Isaiah 14:12-14 speaks twice: Once to the king of Babylon and the second time to the king of the nations. Babylon was destroyed, and the Jews were delivered. The nations will be destroyed, and the saints delivered. Pharaoh's armies were destroyed and the saints delivered. But I don't personally see this in Amos. Amos appears to me to be talking only to Ephraim/the house of Israel. It was a once-off prophecy. The prophecy isn't speaking to Judah (regardless of the fact that they call themselves Israel today, even though they are not Israel).

solid_core said:

1. the Greek νῦν has two meanings. One is of time, another is just a logical connection. So you have 50:50 chance that you got it right.

2. Even if you got it right and Jesus really meant that his kingdom was not of this world before his death, we know that after his resurrection, he was given the kingdom:

"...he raised him from the dead and seated him at his right hand in the heavenly places, far above all rule and authority and power and dominion, and above every name that is named, not only in this age but also in the one to come."
Eph 1:20

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Christ's Kingdom is come (indeed, it is come).
Thy Kingdom come. Thy will be done in the earth as it is in heaven.
Christ's Kingdom is coming (indeed, it is coming).

nolidad said:

Mostly because REv. 21 is not the fulflilment of Ezekiel 38-39. The only similarities are the terms gog and magog.

But when you look at both, Ezekiel is different this way:

1. This war has a limited number of allies
REv. they gather from the globe
2. God turns Gog back and causes people to turn to teh Lord
REv. destroys all and sets up the great white throne.
3. Israel burns the weapons of war for 7 years in Ezekiel
REv. judgment is set immediately

There are many more differences . Enough so to conclude that these are two seperate events.

Also the Gog Invasion of Israel has to happen at least 3 1/2 years before th etribulation begins because Israel burns weapons of war for 7 years and we know that midway through Israel flees from Israel.

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I hear but I neither disbelieve, nor believe what you are saying = my mind is open, not closed to what you are saying, therefore I neither agree nor disagree.

shilohsfoal said:

I'm not ignoring it. I just happen to know exactly what kingdoms those are.

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We would love to hear you explain the verse below. Here is your chance.


Rev 11:18 And the nations were angry, and thy wrath is come, and the time of the dead, that they should be judged, and that thou shouldest give reward unto thy servants the prophets, and to the saints, and them that fear thy name, small and great; and shouldest destroy them which destroy the earth.


.

Fullness of the Gentiles said:

Christ's Kingdom is come (indeed, it is come).
Thy Kingdom come. Thy will be done in the earth as it is in heaven.
Christ's Kingdom is coming (indeed, it is coming).

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Quite a cryptic response. Without Bible verses.

shilohsfoal said:

Here are a few countries outside of the kingdom who will Invade the kingdom about 1000 years after the first resurrection.

Ezekiel 38:5 KJV: Persia, Ethiopia, and Libya with them; all of them with shield and helmet:


Notice who's not with them?
No one inside of the kingdom such as Jordan, Iraq, Syria,Lebanon. Not even Egypt is with them.

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Ethiopia of modern times is not a powerful country like in Ezekiel times. It has no real power, its a poor country. And similar to Libya.

How such poor underdeveloped countries (Persia probably being Iran) can war against the rest of the world, the military powers of China, Russia, EU, USA etc? Of course, its absurd.

Its so obvioius that this prophecy is not about our modern era nor about forseeable future, but about ancient events. Futurism misuses Old Testament prophecies and forces them to be about today, but they make no sense today.

shilohsfoal said:

Babylon was destroyed?
I don't remember reading that in my history books.
I remember in my history books it slowly depopulated over time.

And yes, Amos only speaks of Israel worshiping the beast.

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Well Babylon was overthrown by the Persians and Israel was delivered. It's a Biblical type of:

"The cities of the nations fell" (Rev.16:19).

I'm not saying you're wrong. I just wanted more confirmation that Amos that is talking about today's "Israel".

solid_core said:

Quite a cryptic response. Without Bible verses.

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Line 1: Mat 4:17
Line 2: Mat 6:10
Line 3: Rev 11:15

It's easy when you don't read "symbolic millennium" into the scriptures. Once you read "symbolic millennium" into the scriptures you have to practice the same eisegesis with many other parts of the Bible also, to ensure the square peg of your eisegesis can be forced into the perfectly round Revelation of Christ.

shilohsfoal said:

Revelation puts the event 1000 years after the war of Armegeddon. That would be 1000 years after the middle east is destroyed. That's why there are not countries listed in the middle east. It's all Israel at that time.

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Revelation - the most misused and the most misunderstood biblical book.

Any two Christians have three opinions about it.

Fullness of the Gentiles said:

Line 1: Mat 4:17
Line 2: Mat 6:10
Line 3: Rev 11:15

It's easy when you don't read "symbolic millennium" into the scriptures. Once you read "symbolic millennium" into the scriptures you have to practice the same eisegesis with many other parts of the Bible also, to ensure the square peg of your eisegesis can be forced into the perfectly round Revelation of Christ.

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So, you believe that the symbolic book of Revelation gives a literal millenium, not a symbolic one.

Thats the core of your eschatology viewpoint.

Got it.