Where does morality come from?

stevevw

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If you steal my property, your act is against me, and I will judge you based on that act
But when you condemn and tell the other person they are wrong you are saying that their subjective moral position is wrong. By doing that you are taking an objective position. What you should be doing is not condemning them and just saying they have a different position to yours as people do with tastes of food.

They have a right to their moral position to take your stuff as much as you have a right to your moral position that says people should not take other people's stuff. These are just different positions on a spectrum of views where none are ultimately good or bad.

Because the person is the one they have to answer to
Why what is so special about the person. they may never see them again. Why are humans so special if we are just the end result of biological processes.

That’s where the discussion comes in and one person convinces the other who is wrong
But who said your position is ultimately right over the other person. What objective support do you have for showing your position is more right than theirs. If morals change with environments then who says that taking other people's stuff is a good way to survive if they haven't got enough stuff.

A lot of that going around in the real world ya know!
That's, why I think trying to pretend there are no objective morals, can be a problem. That is why society tends to take one position and tells everyone they must conform so that all the arguing about individual opinions is stopped.

Why would you assume life ever came about? How do you know live hasn’t always existed?
Fair enough. Always existed as in on earth, since the universe or before the universe.

If you asked me whose life is more valuable; yours (a person I’ve never met) or my brother whom I’ve known my entire life and has built an emotional relationship with, even though I may SAY all humans are equal if my brother died, my reaction of my brothers death compared to my reaction if you died would expose my claim as a lie, because it would be clear I find my brothers life more valuable than your own; even though I doubt your brother would agree.
If you asked me whose life is more valuable; a person I’ve never met, or a dog I’ve never met, because have an emotional connection to the human that I do not have with the dog, I will subjectively claim the human life is more valuable; even though I doubt my dog will agree.
Ok fair enough, I would have to know what your views are about how life got here and as you have alluded to not having any particular belief from religious belief or science I cannot know to be sure about how to answer you.

But usually, many people believe in evolution so in that sense my question was why should humans be so special when they are just another species among many that just happen to be more advanced. But that should make them any more special otherwise that would be classed as speciesism. So in the greater scheme of things, humans making the survival of themselves so special that this is what created morals is being rather self-serving compared to other creatures.

What does “survival of the fittest” have to do with humans?
Isn't that what species do, they put themselves in better positions to survive. So if humans need more land to survive such as to grow their crops then they will take land from other species and wipe them out. If they need more food to survive they will deplete the oceans of fish to have enough food etc. That is putting survival over the morality of treating the lives of other species as special. When it comes to survival morals go out the window.
 
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Ken-1122

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Of course there is a measure. The measure is in the act itself. When people say that rape or child abuse is wrong, they are not saying it is OK to rape and abuse a child sometimes. They are saying it is never OK. That is the measure, peoples lived moral experience.
Many religious scholars estimate the Virgin Mary was between 12-13 years old when Jesus was born. According to the state of California, this would reconsidered rape because she was not old enough to consent to the act that got her pregnant. Would you call it rape? I don’t think so.
Who is the Virgin Mary?
The act is considered wrong, not the label we attach to the act. Example; suppose we say action “X” is nonconsensual sex via force, and we label action “X” rape. Action “Y” is consensual sex and we label that action love. So action “X” is immoral, action “Y” is moral. But what happens if society decides to include consensual sex under action “X” the label of rape? (I’ve seen radical lesbian feminists claim in interviews that heterosexual sex of any type; even between consenting husband and wife is rape) I will be the first to proclaim that not all rape is bad if this happened and you would probably be the first to agree with me. In order for an act to be objective, not only must it be demonstrable, but the definition of that act cannot vary from person to person, culture to culture, or over a period of time.. As long as someone can change the definition of that act at a whim, that act is subjective.
 
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Ken-1122

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But when you condemn and tell the other person they are wrong you are saying that their subjective moral position is wrong. By doing that you are taking an objective position.
No, I am taking the subjective moral position
What you should be doing is not condemning them and just saying they have a different position to yours as people do with tastes of food.

They have a right to their moral position to take your stuff as much as you have a right to your moral position that says people should not take other people's stuff. These are just different positions on a spectrum of views where none are ultimately good or bad.
The problem is you keep confusing moral subjectivism with moral nihilism
But who said your position is ultimately right over the other person.
Me.
What objective support do you have for showing your position is more right than theirs.
I don’t need objective support, all I need is subjective support
If morals change with environments then who says that taking other people's stuff is a good way to survive if they haven't got enough stuff.
I say it's wrong and will provide a convincing argument for why it's wrong.
That's, why I think trying to pretend there are no objective morals, can be a problem. That is why society tends to take one position and tells everyone they must conform so that all the arguing about individual opinions is stopped.
So whose opinion gets enforced??? Wait wait; let me guess…… YOURS! (good luck with that)
Isn't that what species do, they put themselves in better positions to survive. So if humans need more land to survive such as to grow their crops then they will take land from other species and wipe them out. If they need more food to survive they will deplete the oceans of fish to have enough food etc. That is putting survival over the morality of treating the lives of other species as special. When it comes to survival morals go out the window.
So why are certain animals on the endangered species list?
 
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stevevw

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Many religious scholars estimate the Virgin Mary was between 12-13 years old when Jesus was born.
I am not sure where you are getting your info from but according to most biblical historians Mary was betrothed to Joseph when she was 12 to 14 years. Then they marry at around mid-teens 15 or 16 years old. But no one knows what ages Mary was so its speculation. The only thing we can go off is Jewish customs which didn't allow women to marry until around 15 or 16 years.
According to the state of California, this would reconsider rape because she was not old enough to consent to the act that got her pregnant. Would you call it rape? I don’t think so.
Yes, that's the state of California and who said they are right. It was the norm for women to marry young back in Jesus' time. In fact, women were able to marry at 16 years and in the '50s and today in many US states women can marry as young as 14 years with parental or legal consent.

But then God is the one who made Mary pregnant not a man so no sex took place. Also, God is all good and cannot do evil so regardless the act was a divine act by God. if you want to use the Bible as an example then you have to include all that it says and it says God is all good and cannot sin. The measure for objective morality comes from the same God.
Who is the Virgin Mary?
The act is considered wrong, not the label we attach to the act. Example; suppose we say action “X” is nonconsensual sex via force, and we label action “X” rape. Action “Y” is consensual sex and we label that action love. So action “X” is immoral, action “Y” is moral. But what happens if society decides to include consensual sex under action “X” the label of rape? (I’ve seen radical lesbian feminists claim in interviews that heterosexual sex of any type; even between consenting husband and wife is rape)
Therefore you have to question the validity/sanity of the person claiming that an act is classed as rape. You mentioned that these people were "radical feminist". I think that gives you a clue as to whether those people were of the right mind to determine what a moral act is or is not. Radial means extreme views as with radical Muslims who believe that raping women is OK.
I will be the first to proclaim that not all rape is bad if this happened and you would probably be the first to agree with me.
But the interpretation of the act being rape in the first place is wrong. Just because someone says an act is immoral or moral doesn't mean it really is. So what your saying is if a radical mental case says that abusing babies is OK then that's OK. Or that helping an old lady across the road is elderly abuse then its really elderly abuse. If we governed society that way we would be in big trouble. Luckily we don't and we set certain criteria for what is right and wrong.
In order for an act to be objective, not only must it be demonstrable, but the definition of that act cannot vary from person to person, culture to culture, or over a period of time. As long as someone can change the definition of that act at a whim, that act is subjective.
Yes, people can have all sorts of subjective views. They can believe they are Christ and that they hold the key to good and bad. They can believe that blowing up people is good as it limits the population. But that doesn't mean it is objectively good. It just means that it is someone's opinion.

This is what I was saying about how subjective morality has no objective measure to determine what is good or bad and allows for all sorts of crazy views and no one can really say anyone is ultimately wrong. It undermines itself and any attempt to set a consistent and united standard to what is right and wrong. But in reality, most people know this so therefore they don't enforce a consistent and united set of right and wrong and impose it on people like objective morals. This is seen in our laws and rights.
 
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stevevw

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No, I am taking the subjective moral position
Yes but your imposing your subjective moral position on the other person which then makes it an objective moral position because you are saying the other person cannot take their subjective position and must conform to yours. Otherwise, you should be saying to them OK you have a right to your views that's fair enough. That is why I was saying that people claim there are subjective morals but react like they are objective.

The problem is you keep confusing moral subjectivism with moral nihilism
No this is different. There are still rights and wrongs but they belong to each person only. So it is like live and let live. You have the right to express your moral views but so does the other person just as equally. So when the person does wrong by you in taking your stuff they are not thinking they are doing wrong. They are just living by their moral code.

But when you object and tell them to stop because you are expressing what you believe is the moral code you are imposing your code onto them and disallowing them to express and practice their morals. In other words, both moral positions have clashed but both need to be right and expressed at the same time which is impossible in reality unless you both butt your lips and allow each other to impose.

But that is only ultimately right to you. It is not ultimately right to the person you are imposing your views onto. What about their views and beliefs you have just more or less said they are wrong and don't have a right to have them. You see your ultimate position on what is right or wrong is not the "objective position" (the position outside all humans involved) on what is right and wrong so it cannot apply to the other person.

I don’t need objective support, all I need is subjective support
But isn't that only applies to you. What about the other person, how does he feel not having a say.

I say it's wrong and will provide a convincing argument for why it's wrong.
But any argument will be based on your opinion. Why should someone believe you as you have no objective measure of whether you are ultimately right? You may have ulterior motives or biases as to why you believe you are right. To be truly right you need to take yourself out of things just like everyone does.

So whose opinion gets enforced??? Wait wait; let me guess…… YOURS! (good luck with that)
No not mine, or yours or the other persons. The moral position has to be outside all humans to not be subjective. See the thing is when someone claims a certain subjective position but then contradicts that when they react they are actually taking the objective position because they are taking a position that is outside themselves by contradicting themselves. They have aligned with an intuition they have that they may not always acknowledge but everyone has it.

So why are certain animals on the endangered species list?
For various reasons. But a lot are endangered because humans have taken or destroyed their habitats or hunted them to dangerous levels.
 
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stevevw

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That doesn't mean it is objective.
The question is if there are objective morals how do we define them. I think that lived experience is telling of objective morality. All people intuitively know that there are certain rights and wrongs. People often act contradictory to professed subjectivity which is more or less acting against themselves, against the human ability to determine. They are more or less admitting to themselves and others that there are certain rights and wrongs we must adhere to and accept. This is the only way we can determine objective morality.

Why not? I convinced my husband that Star Trek is a pretty good show. Do you think Star Trek is objectively good and those people who prefer Star Wars are just objectively wrong or do you think I was able to make an argument that changed my husband's subjective opinion?
I'm not saying people cannot make convincing arguments about morality but that doesn't mean that is objectively true. There can be a number of factors as to why you convince someone. They may not know better, you may be good at selling something (salesmen often sell stuff they don't even believe is good). You may have motivation to convince (commission, self-satisfaction, convincing others affirms your position, etc).

That is one of the issues I see with subjective morality and not being able to have a united and clear set of morals. people in influential and powerful positions can convince others about something being good when it is really bad. Look at what the government and big business often do, smoking is good back in the '60s, takeaway food is good, nothing wrong with Pot, abortion is OK, etc, etc.

I believe I've said before that our subjective experiences do not define an objective reality.
Yeah you have sorry.
It's only objective if people can verify our results. There is so much regarding morality that can NOT be verified in this way.
As morality is immaterial you have to use other ways to verify it. We all believe in love and love cannot be materially verified. But we know from lived experience it is real and powerful.

Very well. Please tell me, objectively speaking, what is a suitable punishment for me to give my daughter when she talks back to me?
That is more about conventions. People have different ideas about what is best. But the common morality is not to abuse kids no matter what. Some people say that smacking is bad but maybe a loving tap on the bottom is can be OK if it helps a child realize something is wrong in a dangerous situation like running out in front of the road as time out is not practical in those situations.

The thing with smacking is that there is a fine line because people can go overboard and I think that's why the general rule is don't go there in the first place. But that assumes that everyone loses their cool. Sometimes time out can be abusive like a denial of freedom. Sometimes reasoning goes over a young child's head. The point is no matter what the convention is the moral is don't abuse kids and everyone agrees with that.

Just because most people agree on something doesn't make it objective.
That's true but what I am talking about in an agreement that happens despite what people say. It is something intuitively in us. Sometimes unsaid and just done. Not reasoned or justified or rationalized because this brings in too many arbitrary influences. Just done because it is the right thing to do.

Most people agree that the original design for Sonic in the recent Sonic movie was terrible, but that's still a subjective opinion.
Yes but I am not sure that applies to morals. You could say that people disagree with the design but they all agree that Sonic is a good game character. But I think morals are deeper than that and are associated with belief as well.

No, they do it because they can show that certain actions cause demonstrable harm.
Yes true but even that can be subjective. The point is where did they get the idea of what is harmful or not in the first place. Why is it harmful and why does it matter if humans are just biological and chemical processes that will end just like our planet may one day into nothing.
 
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Kylie

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The question is if there are objective morals how do we define them.

Good question. Funny, isn't it, that when it comes to mathematics we can easily determine and prove objective statements, but when it comes to morality we can't.

I think that lived experience is telling of objective morality.

Except that's subjective, and you can't use that to prove something is objective.

All people intuitively know that there are certain rights and wrongs. People often act contradictory to professed subjectivity which is more or less acting against themselves, against the human ability to determine.

That's because what they say is subjective. It's not a guarantee that they'll act like that, is it?

They are more or less admitting to themselves and others that there are certain rights and wrongs we must adhere to and accept. This is the only way we can determine objective morality.

Except it doesn't work.

Is it objectively right to execute a murderer? Good luck getting an objective moral conclusion on that!

I'm not saying people cannot make convincing arguments about morality but that doesn't mean that is objectively true. There can be a number of factors as to why you convince someone. They may not know better, you may be good at selling something (salesmen often sell stuff they don't even believe is good). You may have motivation to convince (commission, self-satisfaction, convincing others affirms your position, etc).

That's like saying that I can make a convincing subjective argument that one plus one equals a purple Tuesday. Objectivity just doesn't work when it comes to morality because there is no such thing as objective morality.

That is one of the issues I see with subjective morality and not being able to have a united and clear set of morals. people in influential and powerful positions can convince others about something being good when it is really bad. Look at what the government and big business often do, smoking is good back in the '60s, takeaway food is good, nothing wrong with Pot, abortion is OK, etc, etc.

That was more a case of business wanting to make money and people placing the good of others less than their greed.

Because it's subjective.

Yeah you have sorry.

So will you stop presenting any experience as being evidence for any kind of objective morality?

As morality is immaterial you have to use other ways to verify it. We all believe in love and love cannot be materially verified. But we know from lived experience it is real and powerful.

Our belief that we are loved is. I know for a fact that I believe that my husband loves me. But I can not objectively prove it. He could be simply pretending as part of some elaborate scheme. But I very much doubt it. However, I can not say that he loves me as an objective fact.

That is more about conventions. People have different ideas about what is best. But the common morality is not to abuse kids no matter what. Some people say that smacking is bad but maybe a loving tap on the bottom is can be OK if it helps a child realize something is wrong in a dangerous situation like running out in front of the road as time out is not practical in those situations.

The thing with smacking is that there is a fine line because people can go overboard and I think that's why the general rule is don't go there in the first place. But that assumes that everyone loses their cool. Sometimes time out can be abusive like a denial of freedom. Sometimes reasoning goes over a young child's head. The point is no matter what the convention is the moral is don't abuse kids and everyone agrees with that.

Stop mincing words. You claimed there is some objective morality. Use it to tell me what the appropriate punishment is in this case.

Or doesn't your objective morality work? You seem to like claiming it exists, but when it comes time for you to get it out and actually USE this objective morality, all of a sudden you can't?

That's true but what I am talking about in an agreement that happens despite what people say. It is something intuitively in us. Sometimes unsaid and just done. Not reasoned or justified or rationalized because this brings in too many arbitrary influences. Just done because it is the right thing to do.

Care to provide a specific example?

Yes but I am not sure that applies to morals. You could say that people disagree with the design but they all agree that Sonic is a good game character. But I think morals are deeper than that and are associated with belief as well.

Obvious strawman is obvious.

I'm not talking about how much people like the character, I'm talking about the design. I'm trying to show you what the difference between subjective and objective is, because you don't seem to be getting it.

Yes true but even that can be subjective. The point is where did they get the idea of what is harmful or not in the first place. Why is it harmful and why does it matter if humans are just biological and chemical processes that will end just like our planet may one day into nothing.

Agreed. That's why some actions can still be morally dubious even when harm is caused. Like the homeowner who kills an intruder who had a knife, even though the intruder was a father and now there are kids growing up without their dad. Harm was caused to those kids, but does that mean the murder was wrong? The homeowner might have had his own kids to protect. The intruder could have been attacking one of them.

Like I said, there is no objective morality.
 
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Ken-1122

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Yes, that's the state of California and who said they are right. It was the norm for women to marry young back in Jesus' time. In fact, women were able to marry at 16 years and in the '50s and today in many US states women can marry as young as 14 years with parental or legal consent.

But then God is the one who made Mary pregnant not a man so no sex took place. Also, God is all good and cannot do evil so regardless the act was a divine act by God. if you want to use the Bible as an example then you have to include all that it says and it says God is all good and cannot sin. The measure for objective morality comes from the same God.
You said rape is wrong under ALL circumstances. Rape is a legal issue, not a moral one. I just provided an example of (legal) rape, and you justified it. I think you've made my point.
No this is different. There are still rights and wrongs but they belong to each person only. So it is like live and let live.
The same goes for objective morality.
You have the right to express your moral views but so does the other person just as equally.
The same goes for objective morality
So when the person does wrong by you in taking your stuff they are not thinking they are doing wrong. They are just living by their moral code.
The same applies under objective morality
But when you object and tell them to stop because you are expressing what you believe is the moral code you are imposing your code onto them and disallowing them to express and practice their morals.
the same goes under objective morality
In other words, both moral positions have clashed but both need to be right and expressed at the same time which is impossible in reality unless you both butt your lips and allow each other to impose.
And how is this different under objective morality? It isn't.
This is what I was saying about how subjective morality has no objective measure to determine what is good or bad
What good is having an objective measure if nobody accepts it as an objective measure? If I am the only person on earth who accepts my objective measure of good vs bad, how is that different than having no objective measure at all?
 
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stevevw

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You said rape is wrong under ALL circumstances. Rape is a legal issue, not a moral one. The law is based on morals, IE forcible violation of humans. Morally we are to treat humans with respect and dignity and life as precious.
Californian doesn't have a law that says it is OK to rape. Rape is an enforcible sexual violation of another. In common-law statutory rape is non-forcible sexual activity between a couple where one of them is below the age of consent. They both consent to the act but because one may be under a certain age they may not understand the full implications of the act. California happens to think it is under 18 but other states have lower ages such as 16.

But let's make it clear no one is being forced and it is dubious as to when a person is of an age of consent. So who is right. Plus despite all that many states in the US allow marriage with consent at the age of 14 years and commonly women can marry at 16 years without consent. Talk about a lot of mixed messages no wonder people get themselves into trouble with the law. But that's all irrelevant because it is not a forced sexual violation. It is like saying that because someone left some stolen property on your premises even though you had nothing to do with it and didn't know you can be charged with receiving stolen goods. Sometimes the law is an ass.

The same goes for objective morality.
No, it's different the rights and wrongs don't belong to each person, they belong to some lawmaker outside all humans.

The same goes for objective morality
Once again it's different to subjective morality. A person cannot express their own personal moral views. They can only go along with the objective morals set by a nonhuman lawmaker.

The same applies under objective morality
No all those who support objective morals will agree on the morals regardless of personal views. If someone does wrong against those objective morals all parties will realize it is wrong even the wrongdoer. That is why they can confess and admit their sins to each other.

The same goes under objective morality
How is that possible when all involved agree on the objective morals. Objective morals mean the moral standards are set outside the humans involved by God. All Christians follow God's law through Christ. Christ's teachings on how to live are clear in the New Testament.

And how is this different under objective morality? It isn't.
It's different because objective morality has the same morals for everyone who follows Christ. So they agree with how to live morally. Subjective morality has many different moral views which will clash with each other. There is no agreement. Even when there are agreements as you have acknowledged people challenge the morals and break them anyway and will justify their position as being right and the other persons got it wrong as they don't have a monopoly on morals.

What good is having an objective measure if nobody accepts it as an objective measure? If I am the only person on earth who accepts my objective measure of good vs bad, how is that different than having no objective measure at all?
Because your own moral view is not objective in the overall scheme of things. It is not right for all people in all the world and all the universe. It is only right for you. Whereas objective morals are right for all people, in all the world and all the universe and even beyond the universe to God.
 
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stevevw

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Good question. Funny, isn't it, that when it comes to mathematics we can easily determine and prove objective statements, but when it comes to morality we can't.
Perhaps because maths is materially based and morals are immaterial. You cannot work a moral out on paper. But you can see morals at work just like we can see love at work and we can be justified in believing our experience of them just like we can for the physical world as far as reality is concerned.

Except that's subjective, and you can't use that to prove something is objective.
When I say lived experience I am meaning that despite someone saying that there is subjective morality and there are no ultimate rights and wrongs they react like there are. Despite them taking a certain moral position they react in the opposite way and that reaction is the same for all people. All people will react is their child is abused even if they claimed it was OK to abuse children. Everyone will react if their stuff is taken even if they say that it is OK to take other people's stuff. The blue folder example comes to mind.

That's because what they say is subjective. It's not a guarantee that they'll act like that, is it?
But you just admitting that subjective moral positions are unreliable and untrustworthy. Why should anyone believe anyone? Why even bother to try and convince someone else about your moral position. The point is when people do react they react in the same way as though there are certain moral truths that everyone knows within them.

Is it objectively right to execute a murderer? Good luck getting an objective moral conclusion on that!
If you kill in self-defence, in war or have execution as a punishment for a crime that is not denying the objective moral truth that we should not kill. These compromises are very rare exceptions. If we said it is objectively wrong to kill except when morally justified in self-defence and as a punishment for a punishable crime that warrants the death penalty would that be more clear as an objective?

That is still objective as subjective morality allows any and all moral views. We have said that it is wrong to kill except for a couple of rare exceptions. The thing is sometimes objective morals will cross other objective morals and you have to allow for these. Not defending your family against a killer is immoral and you could be held accountable for their deaths. So this allows accommodates the situation while still upholding the objectivity of not to kill.

That's like saying that I can make a convincing subjective argument that one plus one equals a purple Tuesday.
Yes that is what subjective morality is like in reality. people can make a case for anything making what seems right wrong and what we know is wrong right.
Objectivity just doesn't work when it comes to morality because there is no such thing as objective morality.
How do you know there is no objective morality. I have just given you some examples. The fact that everyone knows certain things are always right and wrong through their lived experience is testimony to objective morality.

That was more a case of business wanting to make money and people placing the good of others less than their greed.
Exactly morality was bought with money and making profits. The fact is they convinced many people that these things were good when they were bad as we often find out. So the arguments for morality come down to who can make the best advertising campaign.[/quote]
 
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stevevw

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So will you stop presenting any experience as being evidence for any kind of objective morality?
You said you acknowledged that our subjective moral experience doesn't define objective reality. That is different from our lived moral experience is support for objective morality. That is the only way we can support objective morality as we cannot step outside our reality to God. So what we experience with how people react when wronged is good support.

Our belief that we are loved is. I know for a fact that I believe that my husband loves me. But I can not objectively prove it. He could be simply pretending as part of some elaborate scheme. But I very much doubt it. However, I can not say that he loves me as an objective fact.
But can you say that love is an objective quality even though it is immaterial. You know it is real by the lived experience we have in seeing it in practice.

Stop mincing words. You claimed there is some objective morality. Use it to tell me what the appropriate punishment is in this case.

Or doesn't your objective morality work? You seem to like claiming it exists, but when it comes time for you to get it out and actually USE this objective morality, all of a sudden you can't?
The objective moral is not to abuse kids. So don't do anything that abuses kids. It's quite simple. Can you tell me when it is OK to abuse kids? I think there is a clear line as to when a child is abused or not. If someone smacks a child and abuses them then that is abusing a child.

Care to provide a specific example?
Let's stick with abusing a child. Under subjective morality, some may say it is OK to abuse a child and give their reason. But then when their own child is abused in that way they react like it is wrong. So their subjective moral views say one thing but their lived experience does another. Which do you think is a true indication of their moral position. Most people act this way unless they are not in their right mind.
Obvious strawman is obvious.
I'm not talking about how much people like the character, I'm talking about the design. I'm trying to show you what the difference between subjective and objective is because you don't seem to be getting it.
I agree that people can agree on something and that doesn't determine whether it is objective. It also doesn't determine that it is not an indication that there are objective morals. I think the distinction I was making is that despite people claiming that morals are subjective they keep being bound to certain moral positions regardless of human opinions whether they like it or not. We find ourselves having to make objective moral positions that apply to all as subjective positions don't work in certain cases.

For example, if you survey people on whether it is OK to abuse a child the results may show a certain % saying it is OK in certain situations. But then if you asked them whether it was OK to use those certain situations and apply them to their child they would react and say it was wrong 100% of the time.

Agreed. That's why some actions can still be morally dubious even when harm is caused. Like the homeowner who kills an intruder who had a knife, even though the intruder was a father and now there are kids growing up without their dad. Harm was caused to those kids, but does that mean the murder was wrong? The homeowner might have had his own kids to protect. The intruder could have been attacking one of them.

As I said, there is no objective morality.
But there is still a moral objective IE it is wrong to Kill. The fact that the homeowner killed the intruder doesn't change the fact it is objectively wrong to kill. As I said earlier it just allows a rare compromise to the objective because if the homeowner didn't take action, as you said his family could have died as the intruder had a knife. Then the homeowner would have been culpable of murder himself for not trying to save their loved ones.

So we could get around this by saying unjustified killing is objectively wrong. That stops people from using all the other unjustified views under subjective morality for killing.
 
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Ken-1122

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Californian doesn't have a law that says it is OK to rape. Rape is an enforcible sexual violation of another. In common-law statutory rape is non-forcible sexual activity between a couple where one of them is below the age of consent. They both consent to the act but because one may be under a certain age they may not understand the full implications of the act. California happens to think it is under 18 but other states have lower ages such as 16.

But let's make it clear no one is being forced and it is dubious as to when a person is of an age of consent. So who is right. Plus despite all that many states in the US allow marriage with consent at the age of 14 years and commonly women can marry at 16 years without consent. Talk about a lot of mixed messages no wonder people get themselves into trouble with the law. But that's all irrelevant because it is not a forced sexual violation. It is like saying that because someone left some stolen property on your premises even though you had nothing to do with it and didn't know you can be charged with receiving stolen goods. Sometimes the law is an ass.
You said rape is always wrong, never okay. Are you changing it now?
subjective morality. A person cannot express their own personal moral views. They can only go along with the objective morals set by a nonhuman lawmaker.
When has a non human lawmaker (imaginary or not) ever prevented someone from expressing their views? Never! So whats stopping him from expressing his views?
No all those who support objective morals will agree on the morals regardless of personal views. If someone does wrong against those objective morals all parties will realize it is wrong even the wrongdoer.

How is that possible when all involved agree on the objective morals. Objective morals mean the moral standards are set outside the humans involved by God.
Everybody disagrees on who or what God is, so they disagree on what is objectively moral
It's different because objective morality has the same morals for everyone who follows Christ.
What about the objective morality believers who don't follow Christ, but follow Vinishu, Allah or some lawmaker you don't follow?
Because your own moral view is not objective in the overall scheme of things. It is not right for all people in all the world and all the universe. .
Neither is your moral view. Your moral view is only right for you and those who believe like you. How is that any different than my moral view, which is only right for me and those who think believe like me?
 
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stevevw

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You said rape is always wrong, never okay. Are you changing it now?
I said rape is never OK objectively. That doesn't mean people can't have subjective views that rape is OK.

When has a non human lawmaker (imaginary or not) ever prevented someone from expressing their views? Never! So whats stopping him from expressing his views?
Nothing is stopping a person from expressing their moral views. I am not sure what you are trying to say.

Everybody disagrees on who or what God is, so they disagree on what is objectively moral
We are talking about the Christian God and all Christians agree on God's law through Jesus Christ. Christ is the fulfillment of the law and he explicitly teaches what that is in the New Testament.

What about the objective morality believers who don't follow Christ, but follow Vinishu, Allah or some lawmaker you don't follow?
Just like objective morality means there is only one moral law there can only be one moral lawmaker. So all the gods and deities cannot be the ultimate truth at the same time. It is just a case of determining which god. The Christian God says there is only one God. Christ says He is the way the truth and the life. But that is irrelevant if you don't believe in any god in the first place. But hypothetically there can only be one God and lawmaker.

Neither is your moral view. Your moral view is only right for you and those who believe like you. How is that any different than my moral view, which is only right for me and those who think believe like me?
It is different from subjective morality as it does not originate in humans. God's law is not human opinion but what God has made. Even if you don't believe in God if we assume God is real you have to understand the difference between something human-made and something beyond humans and God made.

The point is if there is no God then there is no ultimate right and wrong. So the morality that is human-made is just an illusion because it can never have any objective measure to determine if it is right or wrong. It is just human opinion. Whereas if there are objective morals then they exist outside human opinion and are laws unto themselves.

What God and the Bible say it that all humans know these objective morals as they are written on our hearts. So everyone intuitively recognizes them through our conscience because this tells us that certain things are always wrong despite human opinion.

Native people who have never had contact with civilization know these moral truths, every culture knows them and everyone will act and react the same regarding certain rights and wrongs regardless of personal subjective opinion. Subjective opinion is different as people can have many different views and they can change them whenever whereas objective morality will stay the same.

Romans 14 -15
14Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature what the law requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law, 15since they show that the work of the Law is written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts either accusing or defending them.
 
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ToddNotTodd

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The question should be why isn't it objectively wrong to abuse children. I can't think of any reason why it is OK to abuse a child.
Actually, if you’re trying to establish that’s morality is objective, it’s necessary to answer my question.

Why is abusing children objectively wrong?
 
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Ken-1122

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That doesn't mean people can't have subjective views that rape is OK.
You mean subjective MORAL views.
Nothing is stopping a person from expressing their moral views. I am not sure what you are trying to say.
Post #1229 you said: “A person cannot express their own personal moral views. They can only go along with the objective morals set by a nonhuman lawmaker”.

Those were your exact words. Are you changing your opinion now?
We are talking about the Christian God and all Christians agree on God's law through Jesus Christ. Christ is the fulfillment of the law and he explicitly teaches what that is in the New Testament.
No we’re not talking about your concept of God, we’re talking about morality. Morality is defined as “personal and social standards for good or bad behavior and character.
MORALITY | meaning in the Cambridge English Dictionary
Notice your God is not mentioned, that’s because morality is not defined as whatever the Christian God has determined to be good or bad, that’s just a misinterpretation you threw into the picture. Perhaps you can make a case for “Objective Christian morality” then you can get your clues from the Bible, your God or whatever. But to suggest all of morality comes from the Christian God, is to ignore reality. Morality no more comes from your God (assuming he exists) than it comes from me.
 
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Kylie

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Perhaps because maths is materially based and morals are immaterial. You cannot work a moral out on paper. But you can see morals at work just like we can see love at work and we can be justified in believing our experience of them just like we can for the physical world as far as reality is concerned.

So you are saying morals are subjective, not objective?

When I say lived experience I am meaning that despite someone saying that there is subjective morality and there are no ultimate rights and wrongs they react like there are. Despite them taking a certain moral position they react in the opposite way and that reaction is the same for all people. All people will react is their child is abused even if they claimed it was OK to abuse children. Everyone will react if their stuff is taken even if they say that it is OK to take other people's stuff. The blue folder example comes to mind.

People acting like morality is objective does not mean it really is.

But you just admitting that subjective moral positions are unreliable and untrustworthy. Why should anyone believe anyone? Why even bother to try and convince someone else about your moral position. The point is when people do react they react in the same way as though there are certain moral truths that everyone knows within them.

So what? People can share the same view even if that view is subjective.

If you kill in self-defence, in war or have execution as a punishment for a crime that is not denying the objective moral truth that we should not kill. These compromises are very rare exceptions. If we said it is objectively wrong to kill except when morally justified in self-defence and as a punishment for a punishable crime that warrants the death penalty would that be more clear as an objective?

That is still objective as subjective morality allows any and all moral views. We have said that it is wrong to kill except for a couple of rare exceptions. The thing is sometimes objective morals will cross other objective morals and you have to allow for these. Not defending your family against a killer is immoral and you could be held accountable for their deaths. So this allows accommodates the situation while still upholding the objectivity of not to kill.

And you'll find that people have a wide variety of views on that, exactly what you said would happen if morality was subjective. If morality was objective, then there would be no disagreement, just as there is no disagreement that 1+1=2.

Yes that is what subjective morality is like in reality. people can make a case for anything making what seems right wrong and what we know is wrong right. How do you know there is no objective morality. I have just given you some examples. The fact that everyone knows certain things are always right and wrong through their lived experience is testimony to objective morality.

I suspect you missed the point. You can convince someone of a subjective opinion with a good argument. I can make a good argument as to why Star Trek is better than Star Wars. But that doesn't mean it is objectively true, even if my argument changes someone's mind.

Exactly morality was bought with money and making profits. The fact is they convinced many people that these things were good when they were bad as we often find out. So the arguments for morality come down to who can make the best advertising campaign.
[/QUOTE]

And I suppose they can convince people that 1+1=5 if they pay off enough people?
 
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Kylie

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You said you acknowledged that our subjective moral experience doesn't define objective reality. That is different from our lived moral experience is support for objective morality. That is the only way we can support objective morality as we cannot step outside our reality to God. So what we experience with how people react when wronged is good support.

That argument makes no sense.

If all you can offer as evidence for objective morality is subjective experience, then you have not provided evidence for objective anything.

But can you say that love is an objective quality even though it is immaterial. You know it is real by the lived experience we have in seeing it in practice.

The show me some way that I can test to see that my husband really loves me and isn't just faking.

The objective moral is not to abuse kids. So don't do anything that abuses kids. It's quite simple. Can you tell me when it is OK to abuse kids? I think there is a clear line as to when a child is abused or not. If someone smacks a child and abuses them then that is abusing a child.

The fact that I think it is always wrong to abuse kids does not make it objective. It's simply a subjective opinion that most people share.

And did you actually pay attention to yourself? "If someone abuses a child then that is abuse." Well of course! But what counts as abuse? Can you objectively define that for me?

Let's stick with abusing a child. Under subjective morality, some may say it is OK to abuse a child and give their reason. But then when their own child is abused in that way they react like it is wrong. So their subjective moral views say one thing but their lived experience does another. Which do you think is a true indication of their moral position. Most people act this way unless they are not in their right mind.

Yeah, people do that. I've seen lots of people say that the kid asked for the abuse by the way they dressed or acted. Obviously I think those arguments are crazy, but the abusers genuinely think their reasoning is valid. That exactly what we'd expect from something that is subjective, isn't it?

In any case, I asked for a specific example and that wasn't very specific, was it?

I agree that people can agree on something and that doesn't determine whether it is objective. It also doesn't determine that it is not an indication that there are objective morals. I think the distinction I was making is that despite people claiming that morals are subjective they keep being bound to certain moral positions regardless of human opinions whether they like it or not. We find ourselves having to make objective moral positions that apply to all as subjective positions don't work in certain cases.

Because we are social creatures and opinions are instilled on us by our parents and our society. And one of those is our morality. So it's not surprising that we generally have very similar moral views.

For example, if you survey people on whether it is OK to abuse a child the results may show a certain % saying it is OK in certain situations. But then if you asked them whether it was OK to use those certain situations and apply them to their child they would react and say it was wrong 100% of the time.

Because it's subjective.

But there is still a moral objective IE it is wrong to Kill. The fact that the homeowner killed the intruder doesn't change the fact it is objectively wrong to kill. As I said earlier it just allows a rare compromise to the objective because if the homeowner didn't take action, as you said his family could have died as the intruder had a knife. Then the homeowner would have been culpable of murder himself for not trying to save their loved ones.

So now you are saying that this objective morality really depends on the situation. That sounds pretty subjective to me!

So we could get around this by saying unjustified killing is objectively wrong. That stops people from using all the other unjustified views under subjective morality for killing.

But there are grey areas there as well, aren't there?
 
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stevevw

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Actually, if you’re trying to establish that’s morality is objective, it’s necessary to answer my question.

Why is abusing children objectively wrong?
Abusing a child is objectively wrong because it harms the child for no justified reason and we intuitively know that harming children in that way is always wrong.
 
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