The Reprobate Doctrine

Do you believe God gives people over to a reprobate mind, as defined in Romans 1

  • Yes

    Votes: 24 82.8%
  • No

    Votes: 1 3.4%
  • Other

    Votes: 4 13.8%
  • I've never heard of the reprobate doctrine

    Votes: 0 0.0%

  • Total voters
    29
  • Poll closed .
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Daniel C

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Are you wanting a verse to say "God's grace varies" like a verse that says "God is a trinity?"

And, I see (again) no answers to my questions posed in Ephesians.

I'm beginning to think you're just being a troll bro.


Yes a verse would be useful to support your claim.

Don't start making those kind of accusations. You already left the conversation once,do it again if you feel dissatisfied.
 
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HatGuy

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Yes a verse would be useful to support your claim.

Don't start making those kind of accusations. You already left the conversation once,do it again if you feel dissatisfied.
Cool, I'll leave, but remember you've failed to prove your false "reprobate doctrine" either via the Bible, or logic, or debate and conversation, or even just common decency. Have a great time in your echo chamber. Cheers mate.
 
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Saint Steven

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Ironically, the Damnationists have created a god whose eternal purpose is to steal and kill and destroy. Does that ring a bell? (hell's bells)

John 10:10
The thief comes only to steal and kill and destroy; I have come that they may have life, and have it to the full.
 
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The Righterzpen

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So, an elite class were allowed in heaven before the cross?

If you want to claim Enoch and Moses and Elijah are "an elite class of people"; you're entitled to call them what ever you want. It is clear though that they were in heaven before the cross.

Everyone has been atoned for. The difference is whether you have received it or not.

1 John 2:2
He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.

I've explained this verse already. Someone being the payer for sin doesn't mean they've paid for all sins. It only means that of what ever sin has been paid for; they are the one who paid it.

You believe that everyone is paid for and the difference is whether or not one receives it? Yet if everyone will eventually be reconciled; whether they receive it or not is actually immaterial; which makes the proclamation of the gospel of no consequence. Which I believe more than one person on this thread has pointed that out to you.

So, you are claiming an emotional component to our salvation contract?

What does "emotional component to our salvation contract" mean? We're not suppose to have them? Having my sin atoned for should not have any impact on how I feel about God? Do you believe there is no relational component to salvation? So if someone in agony proclaims (because they can not deny) Jesus is Lord; that's "just as good" in God's eyes as someone who's joyful?

Ya know; that's a really sadistic view of God.

Every tongue will confess Jesus Christ as Lord. Even C.S. Lewis says he was dragged into the kingdom against his will. (kicking and screaming)

Apparently you don't understand what C.S. Lewis meant by that. Other authors have called God "the hound of heaven". He is relentless in pursuing those He atoned for. And of course He would be. He endured wrath for them. Of course He's not going to let them get away. This statement of C.S. Lewis's speaks to the sovereignty of God in salvation and the reality of Romans 3 that "non understand, none seek after God...." Unless the Spirit acts to retrieve us, no one comes. And once the sinner realizes that the reason God has "hounded him down" is because if God didn't do this; he'd be eternally lost. The sinner then responds with love and gratitude to God because he understands God did not have to redeem him. God did not have to redeem any of us. He demonstrates His love in that He did redeem some and those that He redeemed now love Him because He first loved them.

Under your schema; God only seeks to demonstrate power to force obedience and He "gets it how ever He can". That is not a demonstration of love. That's sadism.
I don't think the emotional aspect has anything to do with it.

Does the "emotional aspect" have any bearing on your relationships to friends, family, God, wife, kids, coworkers - whom ever? Are you a sadist? "Obey me or else!"

Unless of course you want to deny that being created with emotions has an intended purpose in God's plan. Unless you believe emotions were a consequence of the fall?

The same applies for forgiveness. It is a simple contractual decision. Remorse or emotion is not required.

So if someone brutally rapes and murders your 10 year old daughter; you simply forgive him (whether he's sorry or not) because "it is a simple contractual decision"? If you really live your life this way, you are a sociopath.
 
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BNR32FAN

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“And you were dead in your trespasses and sins, in which you formerly walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of disobedience. Among them we too all formerly lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, even as the rest. But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, even when we were dead in our transgressions, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved), and raised us up with Him, and seated us with Him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, so that in the ages to come He might show the surpassing riches of His grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus. For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast. For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand so that we would walk in them. Therefore remember that formerly you, the Gentiles in the flesh, who are called "Uncircumcision" by the so-called "Circumcision," which is performed in the flesh by human hands- remember that you were at that time separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world. But now in Christ Jesus you who formerly were far off have been brought near by the blood of Christ. For He Himself is our peace, who made both groups into one and broke down the barrier of the dividing wall, by abolishing in His flesh the enmity, which is the Law of commandments contained in ordinances, so that in Himself He might make the two into one new man, thus establishing peace, and might reconcile them both in one body to God through the cross, by it having put to death the enmity. AND HE CAME AND PREACHED PEACE TO YOU WHO WERE FAR AWAY, AND PEACE TO THOSE WHO WERE NEAR; for through Him we both have our access in one Spirit to the Father. So then you are no longer strangers and aliens, but you are fellow citizens with the saints, and are of God's household, having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus Himself being the corner stone, in whom the whole building, being fitted together, is growing into a holy temple in the Lord, in whom you also are being built together into a dwelling of God in the Spirit.”
‭‭Ephesians‬ ‭2:1-22‬ ‭NASB‬‬

For those who reject God and rebel against Him He will allow them to do so hence

And just as they did not see fit to acknowledge God any longer, God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do those things which are not proper,”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭1:28‬ ‭NASB‬‬

The saints in Ephesians 2 were no different until they believed and accepted Christ. They were given over to a depraved mind while they rebelled against Him. When they finally decided to repent they received grace. Repentance precedes grace.
 
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Saint Steven

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If you want to claim Enoch and Moses and Elijah are "an elite class of people"; you're entitled to call them what ever you want. It is clear though that they were in heaven before the cross.
Why is that clear to you?

Do you really believe that someone cannot be summoned from the realm of the dead?
 
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Saint Steven

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I've explained this verse already. Someone being the payer for sin doesn't mean they've paid for all sins. It only means that of what ever sin has been paid for; they are the one who paid it.

You believe that everyone is paid for and the difference is whether or not one receives it? Yet if everyone will eventually be reconciled; whether they receive it or not is actually immaterial; which makes the proclamation of the gospel of no consequence. Which I believe more than one person on this thread has pointed that out to you.
The first paragraph sounds like a lot of doubletalk. I think it is a projection of your belief that only the predestined "elect" will be saved.

Jesus died for the sins of the whole world. You seems to be saying that God so loved the "elect" that he gave his one and only Son...

John 3:16-17
For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.
 
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Saint Steven

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Ya know; that's a really sadistic view of God.
Wow. That's an incredible statement from a Damnationist.
You believe that God will cast those who have never even heard of Jesus into the conscious torment of the Lake of Fire for "all eternity" with no hope of escape. And then have the audacity to claim that I have a sadistic view of God? That's rich.
 
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Saint Steven

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What does "emotional component to our salvation contract" mean? We're not suppose to have them? Having my sin atoned for should not have any impact on how I feel about God? Do you believe there is no relational component to salvation? So if someone in agony proclaims (because they can not deny) Jesus is Lord; that's "just as good" in God's eyes as someone who's joyful?

Ya know; that's a really sadistic view of God.
Maybe you should hear me out before casting judgement.

Emotion is fine. But God doesn't need that. He doesn't look to us to satisfy his own well-being. Fortunately.

Hopefully you are claiming that emotion is necessary to be saved. How would we measure such things? Were you emotional enough to be saved? (who knows?) Could you have been more emotional? (of course) Was there enough emotion to be saved? (who knows?)

I agree that a joyful experience or outcome is a good thing. But some don't have that. Are they NOT saved? (based on a lack of emotion)
 
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Saint Steven

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Under your schema; God only seeks to demonstrate power to force obedience and He "gets it how ever He can". That is not a demonstration of love. That's sadism.
Once again, that's quite a claim for a Damnationist to make. Sadism? Really?

Just so you know, I don't believe the fire is like what we find here on earth. The pain is more emotional than physical. There's the emotion you were hoping for. - lol (weeping and gnashing of teeth)
 
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Saint Steven

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So if someone brutally rapes and murders your 10 year old daughter; you simply forgive him (whether he's sorry or not) because "it is a simple contractual decision"? If you really live your life this way, you are a sociopath.
Once again, calling me a sociopath before hearing me out is a bit much.

Yes, the contractual aspect of forgiveness REQUIRES no emotion. In fact, in the example you give, that may be the only way to do it. How could you muster up enough emotion to do what needs to be done to forgive in this situation?
 
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The Righterzpen

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Why is that clear to you?

Do you really believe that someone cannot be summoned from the realm of the dead?

It's clear to me because Moses and Elijah stood on the Mt. of Transfiguration in bodily form. Scripture says that Elijah was taken into heaven in a chariot and that God buried Moses. So yeah, it's apparent to me that they both received resurrected bodies "ahead of the game".

If only their spirits had been summonsed from the dead; the disciples would not have been asking Jesus if they should build shelters for the 3 of them. Very clearly, Moses and Elijah were in tangible form.

Deceased human beings, where the soul and spirit have been severed from the flesh, can not manifest themselves in material form. Non-carbon based entities called angels can appear to humans in material form and pre-incarnation Christ appeared to humans in material form. (theophanies.) No where in the Scripture does it say that deceased saints appear to humans on earth in material form.

Only one place in Revelation do we see a "dis-embodied" saint appear to John in material form; but this was a vision of heaven and if John was actually physically there, there's nothing to say this deceased saint had not already received a resurrected body. This was a post resurrection event. So if John was actually physically in the New Jerusalem, he very well may have encountered people with resurrected bodies.

The Scripture does say that many bodies of the saints arose after Christ's resurrection and walked around in the holy city. That was most likely the New Jerusalem because the earthy Jerusalem (where the Messiah was crucified) was no longer "set apart".

Jesus died for the sins of the whole world. You seems to be saying that God so loved the "elect" that he gave his one and only Son...

John 3:16-17
For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

"For God so loved the cosmos, that He gave His only begotten son..." The Greek word is "cosmos", which is what we'd translate as "universe". The creation is part of the redemption plan. It will be delivered from the curse brought upon it by mans' sin and will be recreated incorruptible. And this is why I believe John wrote "cosmos" in that verse.

Now, there's also a verse: "A decree went out from Augustus Caesar that all the world be taxed." Did Caesar tax the American Indians, or the Chinese? When does "all the world" really not mean "all the world"? The Greek word for "world" in that passage is "inhabitants of the earth".

Now under the inspiration of the Holy Ghost; John could have written: "For God so loved the inhabitants of the earth, that He gave...." But that's not what he wrote. He wrote: "For God so loved the cosmos..."

John 3:16 does not teach universal atonement.

Wow. That's an incredible statement from a Damnationist.

I'm sorry, but I can not picture an incorruptible earth that contains people (alleged by you to now have been cleansed by their experience in the lake of fire) who are silenced and void of praise on account of being forced to "bow the knee".

How does forced obedience produce love? That's why I said that idea poses a sadistic view of God.

Yet apparently you don't see that; because you claim that God requiring someone to atone for their own sin is "sadistic".

Matter of fact though; the Scripture declares that the disobedient mouths are halted because they are guilty before God. Romans 3:19

This also flies in the face of what you said before about they're not being in the lake of fire because of sin, but because of unbelief. Well, is not unbelief a sin? Scripture commands men to believe; yet if one disobeys the law, that is sin. So therefore; disobeying the command to believe is sin.

So, if Christ has atoned for them; there is no grounds to send them to the lake of fire in the first place. Contrary to what a lot of people claim; unbelief is not blaspheming the Spirit of God. Blasphemy against the Spirit is the only sin that is unforgivable and that sin is very specific to time and place of witnessing Christ perform miracles in the flesh, knowing He's the Messiah and saying He does this by the power of Satan. That is blaspheming the Holy Ghost. That is the only definition of blaspheming the Holy Ghost. We can be assured that unbelief is not blaspheming the Holy Ghost, because everyone at some point or another is in a state of unbelief.

You believe that God will cast those who have never even heard of Jesus into the conscious torment of the Lake of Fire for "all eternity" with no hope of escape. And then have the audacity to claim that I have a sadistic view of God? That's rich.

No, I do not believe this. Matter of fact; I said that one can come to redemption by the witness of creation, outside of the written revelation of Scripture and you made fun of me for saying that.

Emotion is fine. But God doesn't need that. He doesn't look to us to satisfy his own well-being. Fortunately.

The statements I made about emotion were not in reference to any "emotional need" of God's. So, stop taking what I say out of context.

Positive emotional response toward God (i.e. love and gratitude) is a consequence of redemption. Now the degree wherewith an individual may publicly express that will vary. What you see on the outside though, does not necessarily convey to you the extent of what they feel in their heart.

Hopefully you are claiming that emotion is necessary to be saved. How would we measure such things? Were you emotional enough to be saved? (who knows?) Could you have been more emotional? (of course) Was there enough emotion to be saved? (who knows?)

Hopefully I'm saying emotion is necessary to be saved? LOL

Positive emotional response to God is like faith and obedience. It is a consequence of redemption, not a prerequisite to.

I agree that a joyful experience or outcome is a good thing. But some don't have that. Are they NOT saved? (based on a lack of emotion)

And why don't they have it?

If they believe no one is eternally lost; why would they be joyful? Salvation becomes as inevitable as death and taxes. What's there to be happy about that? LOL

Once again, that's quite a claim for a Damnationist to make. Sadism? Really?

What would you call one who forces obedience from another so they can delude themselves into believing they are loved? Psychology calls that sadism.

Just so you know, I don't believe the fire is like what we find here on earth. The pain is more emotional than physical. There's the emotion you were hoping for. - lol (weeping and gnashing of teeth)

And why throw someone into the lake of fire to accomplish that? Isn't the emotional turmoil experienced on earth as a consequence of sin and living in a fallen world enough?

Once again, calling me a sociopath before hearing me out is a bit much.

Go back and read more carefully what I actually wrote.

Yes, the contractual aspect of forgiveness REQUIRES no emotion. In fact, in the example you give, that may be the only way to do it. How could you muster up enough emotion to do what needs to be done to forgive in this situation?

How would your belief square with passages that talk of God's wrath? If "the contractual aspect of forgiveness REQUIRES no emotion"; why does the Scripture speak of the wrath of God? According to what you're saying; in order for God to forgive, He'd have to "muster up enough emotion to do what needs to be done to forgive this situation".

The Scripture does not portray God that way though. God is described in the Scripture as anything but emotionless. Look at Jesus in Gethsemane. Do you have any idea what His agony would have looked like if you were to stand there and watch it? Have you ever seen someone have a nervous breakdown? A PTSD shell shocked panic attack? If you look closely at the Greek; you'd come to the conclusion that Jesus's experience would have looked something like the footage in this clip.

Jeremiah tells us that the wrath of God causes men to go insane.

 
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FineLinen

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It's clear to me because Moses and Elijah stood on the Mt. of Transfiguration in bodily form. Scripture says that Elijah was taken into heaven in a chariot and that God buried Moses. So yeah, it's apparent to me that they both received resurrected bodies "ahead of the game".

If only their spirits had been summonsed from the dead; the disciples would not have been asking Jesus if they should build shelters for the 3 of them. Very clearly, Moses and Elijah were in tangible form.

Deceased human beings, where the soul and spirit have been severed from the flesh, can not manifest themselves in material form. Non-carbon based entities called angels can appear to humans in material form and pre-incarnation Christ appeared to humans in material form. (theophanies.) No where in the Scripture does it say that deceased saints appear to humans on earth in material form.

Only one place in Revelation do we see a "dis-embodied" saint appear to John in material form; but this was a vision of heaven and if John was actually physically there, there's nothing to say this deceased saint had not already received a resurrected body. This was a post resurrection event. So if John was actually physically in the New Jerusalem, he very well may have encountered people with resurrected bodies.

The Scripture does say that many bodies of the saints arose after Christ's resurrection and walked around in the holy city. That was most likely the New Jerusalem because the earthy Jerusalem (where the Messiah was crucified) was no longer "set apart".



"For God so loved the cosmos, that He gave His only begotten son..." The Greek word is "cosmos", which is what we'd translate as "universe". The creation is part of the redemption plan. It will be delivered from the curse brought upon it by mans' sin and will be recreated incorruptible. And this is why I believe John wrote "cosmos" in that verse.

Now, there's also a verse: "A decree went out from Augustus Caesar that all the world be taxed." Did Caesar tax the American Indians, or the Chinese? When does "all the world" really not mean "all the world"? The Greek word for "world" in that passage is "inhabitants of the earth".

Now under the inspiration of the Holy Ghost; John could have written: "For God so loved the inhabitants of the earth, that He gave...." But that's not what he wrote. He wrote: "For God so loved the cosmos..."

John 3:16 does not teach universal atonement.



I'm sorry, but I can not picture an incorruptible earth that contains people (alleged by you to now have been cleansed by their experience in the lake of fire) who are silenced and void of praise on account of being forced to "bow the knee".

How does forced obedience produce love? That's why I said that idea poses a sadistic view of God.

Yet apparently you don't see that; because you claim that God requiring someone to atone for their own sin is "sadistic".

Matter of fact though; the Scripture declares that the disobedient mouths are halted because they are guilty before God. Romans 3:19

This also flies in the face of what you said before about they're not being in the lake of fire because of sin, but because of unbelief. Well, is not unbelief a sin? Scripture commands men to believe; yet if one disobeys the law, that is sin. So therefore; disobeying the command to believe is sin.

So, if Christ has atoned for them; there is no grounds to send them to the lake of fire in the first place. Contrary to what a lot of people claim; unbelief is not blaspheming the Spirit of God. Blasphemy against the Spirit is the only sin that is unforgivable and that sin is very specific to time and place of witnessing Christ perform miracles in the flesh, knowing He's the Messiah and saying He does this by the power of Satan. That is blaspheming the Holy Ghost. That is the only definition of blaspheming the Holy Ghost. We can be assured that unbelief is not blaspheming the Holy Ghost, because everyone at some point or another is in a state of unbelief.



No, I do not believe this. Matter of fact; I said that one can come to redemption by the witness of creation, outside of the written revelation of Scripture and you made fun of me for saying that.



The statements I made about emotion were not in reference to any "emotional need" of God's. So, stop taking what I say out of context.

Positive emotional response toward God (i.e. love and gratitude) is a consequence of redemption. Now the degree wherewith an individual may publicly express that will vary. What you see on the outside though, does not necessarily convey to you the extent of what they feel in their heart.



Hopefully I'm saying emotion is necessary to be saved? LOL

Positive emotional response to God is like faith and obedience. It is a consequence of redemption, not a prerequisite to.



And why don't they have it?

If they believe no one is eternally lost; why would they be joyful? Salvation becomes as inevitable as death and taxes. What's there to be happy about that? LOL



What would you call one who forces obedience from another so they can delude themselves into believing they are loved? Psychology calls that sadism.



And why throw someone into the lake of fire to accomplish that? Isn't the emotional turmoil experienced on earth as a consequence of sin and living in a fallen world enough?



Go back and read more carefully what I actually wrote.



How would your belief square with passages that talk of God's wrath? If "the contractual aspect of forgiveness REQUIRES no emotion"; why does the Scripture speak of the wrath of God? According to what you're saying; in order for God to forgive, He'd have to "muster up enough emotion to do what needs to be done to forgive this situation".

The Scripture does not portray God that way though. God is described in the Scripture as anything but emotionless. Look at Jesus in Gethsemane. Do you have any idea what His agony would have looked like if you were to stand there and watch it? Have you ever seen someone have a nervous breakdown? A PTSD shell shocked panic attack? If you look closely at the Greek; you'd come to the conclusion that Jesus's experience would have looked something like the footage in this clip.

Jeremiah tells us that the wrath of God causes men to go insane.


iu


Dear Right: How can someone be so right when they are in reality so wrong?

'"How would your belief square with passages that talk of God's wrath? If "the contractual aspect of forgiveness REQUIRES no emotion'; why does the Scripture speak of the wrath of God? According to what you're saying; in order for God to forgive, He'd have to 'muster up enough emotion to do what needs to be done to forgive this situation'.

The Father of all fathers needs to rustle up zero emotion. He is the Essence of Love moving from what He is to express Himself in fulness to a desired goal.

Father's Love never fails
 
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The Righterzpen

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The canon of NT scripture was not a singular writing that stopped with the book of Revelation in 95 AD. The New Testament canon was a collection of books in an approved form (27 books) that was not finalized until the Council of Carthage AD 397. Late in the fourth century.

Do you not believe in the claimed authorship of these books? Because, all those who were said to have written them were dead by the end of the 1st century.

Therefore, the NT canon could not have closed in 95 AD, as it did not exist in any form until 170 AD. Which at that time did not include Hebrews, James, 1 and 2 Peter, and 3 John.

This is categorically untrue. I don't know where you got your information from but according to the Scripture itself; your assertions are untrue.

As I said earlier, there are three doctrinal positions in reference to the final judgment. Universalism is not a new concept. It was the prevailing view in the early church, as I understand it.

What you claim is the "prevailing view of the early church" is 400 years post Christ. You quoted nothing from further back than 350 AD. I gave you a list of stated doctrinal beliefs about hell that go back to the 2nd and even the 1st century. (Despite some of these being non-Scripture - like the epistle of Barnabas; they are consistent in being "damnationist".

What Did Early Christians Believe About Hell? | Cold Case Christianity

Being purged is not the payment for sin, it is a consequence for not receiving the atonement. The atonement was for everyone.

"Not receiving atonement" would be unbelief. Belief is commanded in the Scripture by the law. So therefore unbelief is disobedience to the law; which is sin. And if Christ atoned for ones sin; since He is stated to have atoned for all sin, that would include unbelief. Therefore God would have no grounds whatsoever to cast anyone into the lake of fire. So therefore, even your doctrine of them being purged by the lake of fire would be false.

It wasn't only the translation that was messed with. The vocabulary and lexicon definitions were meddled with as well. In some cases looking up the meaning of the Greek leads to a biased definition. Augustine made sure of this, as I understand it.

It doesn't matter what the lexicons say. Scripture tells us to interpret it by using itself. One way of understanding what a particular word means in the Scripture is by comparing it to all the other places its used in the Scripture. Honest Bible translators determined their definitions of words by using this method.

It's actually good news.
From a humorous perspective, we'll all get tired of sitting on clouds strumming harps. We'll be ready for something new. More ages will follow. Rather than one continuous endless age. As I understand it.

Ages of what? The recreated heavens and earth are recreated to be incorruptible with no death and no sin. So if you now have an incorruptible universe where time is no more; what "ages" would follow? You can't have "ages" if there's no more measurement of time.

Sorry. As inspiring as the Springtime is, there is no gospel message in it. At least not to those who have never heard the gospel. To what would they respond? A flower, a bird, warm sunshine? To do what?

There's not gospel message in things coming back to life?

"To those who've never heard the gospel" (There is no one who's "never heard the gospel".) That is the gospel; according to creation. Have you ever looked at Native American lore and what they came to understand about God by what they observed around them. The concept of "the Great Spirit" in Native American culture is nearly universal. That's monotheism. Are you aware there are many messianic figures in Native American lore?

So you agree that those without the law in Rom.2:14-15 are saved? Progress.
What about the basis for salvation in Matt.25 ???

What part of Matthew 25?

32 And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats:

33 And he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the left.

34 Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world:

Note this passage never says anything about one nation being "sheep" ant other nations being "goats". What the Greek word "them" in "shall separate them one from another" means is that He is gathering out those that are "of self". (Those that belong to Him.)

Note too, the Kingdom is prepared from the foundation of the world. Now go look up "foundation of the world" and all the contexts thats used in will give you "the basis for their salvation.

Jesus utters things kept secret from the foundation of the world.

The blood of the prophets shed from the foundation of the world is required "of this generation." What does that mean? "You are hated of all men because they have hated me." (And they hate Christ because they hate the Father.) They killed the prophets because they hate God. So the blood of the prophets is required at the hand of the generation that crucified Christ.

The Father loved the Son from the foundation of the world.

Those who are redeemed are chosen from the foundation of the world.

Because the atonement took place outside of time (as well as inside of time); Christ has only suffered once and for all time. Unlike the OT priests who had to sacrifice animals every year.

This is why it is "appointed unto men once to die and after this the judgement."
28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of MANY; (note it does not say all!) and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

Those under the earth that confess Jesus as Lord are believers when they do. And not before.

Look at verse above.

I have been in the Universalist camp for only a few months. It was only a matter of weeks before I could see MAJOR problems with Damnationism. Especially what it claims about our loving Father.

And how long had you been in the damnationism camp prior?

I would rather be a Universalist and be wrong than a Damnationist and be wrong.

?????

If the universalist is wrong - this means damnation is eternal and those that end up there never get out. (Thus if the universalist ends up there; he'll never get out.)

If the damnationist is wrong; he will eventually be reconciled.

So therefore; it doesn't matter if I'm wrong (the damnationisit); it only matters if you're wrong! (Because you are the one at risk of ending up forever in the lake of fire!)

Do we disagree on the basic points of the faith? (I don't think so)

What, why, when and how long the wrath of God constitutes is a basic point of faith; because someone's understanding of that one doctrine affects their entire understanding of salvation.
 
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FineLinen

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Refute by Scripture!

Dear Right:

I believe

The Father of all fathers needs to rustle up zero emotion. He is the Essence of Love moving from what He is to express Himself in fulness to a desired goal.

Father's Love never fails!
 
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Saint Steven

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It's clear to me because Moses and Elijah stood on the Mt. of Transfiguration in bodily form. Scripture says that Elijah was taken into heaven in a chariot and that God buried Moses. So yeah, it's apparent to me that they both received resurrected bodies "ahead of the game".

If only their spirits had been summonsed from the dead; the disciples would not have been asking Jesus if they should build shelters for the 3 of them. Very clearly, Moses and Elijah were in tangible form.

Deceased human beings, where the soul and spirit have been severed from the flesh, can not manifest themselves in material form. Non-carbon based entities called angels can appear to humans in material form and pre-incarnation Christ appeared to humans in material form. (theophanies.) No where in the Scripture does it say that deceased saints appear to humans on earth in material form.

Only one place in Revelation do we see a "dis-embodied" saint appear to John in material form; but this was a vision of heaven and if John was actually physically there, there's nothing to say this deceased saint had not already received a resurrected body. This was a post resurrection event. So if John was actually physically in the New Jerusalem, he very well may have encountered people with resurrected bodies.

The Scripture does say that many bodies of the saints arose after Christ's resurrection and walked around in the holy city. That was most likely the New Jerusalem because the earthy Jerusalem (where the Messiah was crucified) was no longer "set apart".
Now this is an interesting discussion. Thanks for the detailed response. We differ on several points.

I have a different view of the state of the dead than you do. Which has nothing to do with Universalism. I came to these views as a Damnationist. We have a body, a soul (mind) and a spirit. The body is the physical part that we leave behind when we die physically. But our soul (who we are) and our spirit continues on to the realm of the dead or to heaven.

Jesus gives us a description in the story of the Rich Man and Lazarus. The Rich Man was talking to Abraham. He was thirsty, in agony in the fire, and concerned that his brothers should not come there. Now, you may claim that this is a parable (I disagree) and that it should not be taken literally. But why would Jesus be misleading about this?

Testimonies of NDEs indicate that the mind operates independent of the brain. There are reports of people hovering above the hospital bed while their bodies are being resuscitated. To put it in a humorous way, if you got a brain transplant, who would you be? The mind/soul contains our identity. It's what makes me Steve.

If you have never done this, you might want to. Search the term "realm of the dead" in the Bible. It comes up 29 times in the NIV. One of those times is in Acts chapter two. Many of those passages speak about the activity of those present.

And those who came out of the tombs after Jesus’ resurrection appeared to many people. Furthermore, how could this be part of a historical account if it happened in the spiritual realm. The earth shook, the rocks split and the tombs broke open. All witnessed here.

Matthew 27:50-53
And when Jesus had cried out again in a loud voice, he gave up his spirit.
51 At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. The earth shook, the rocks split 52 and the tombs broke open. The bodies of many holy people who had died were raised to life. 53 They came out of the tombs after Jesus’ resurrection and went into the holy city and appeared to many people.
 
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"For God so loved the cosmos, that He gave His only begotten son..." The Greek word is "cosmos", which is what we'd translate as "universe". The creation is part of the redemption plan. It will be delivered from the curse brought upon it by mans' sin and will be recreated incorruptible. And this is why I believe John wrote "cosmos" in that verse.

Now, there's also a verse: "A decree went out from Augustus Caesar that all the world be taxed." Did Caesar tax the American Indians, or the Chinese? When does "all the world" really not mean "all the world"? The Greek word for "world" in that passage is "inhabitants of the earth".

Now under the inspiration of the Holy Ghost; John could have written: "For God so loved the inhabitants of the earth, that He gave...." But that's not what he wrote. He wrote: "For God so loved the cosmos..."

John 3:16 does not teach universal atonement.
I think what you have present is indeed a Universalist apologetic. Jesus dying to redeem the entire Universe. It doesn't get much more universal than that. Wow. I'm stunned.
 
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I'm sorry, but I can not picture an incorruptible earth that contains people (alleged by you to now have been cleansed by their experience in the lake of fire) who are silenced and void of praise on account of being forced to "bow the knee".

How does forced obedience produce love? That's why I said that idea poses a sadistic view of God.

Yet apparently you don't see that; because you claim that God requiring someone to atone for their own sin is "sadistic".

Matter of fact though; the Scripture declares that the disobedient mouths are halted because they are guilty before God. Romans 3:19

This also flies in the face of what you said before about they're not being in the lake of fire because of sin, but because of unbelief. Well, is not unbelief a sin? Scripture commands men to believe; yet if one disobeys the law, that is sin. So therefore; disobeying the command to believe is sin.

So, if Christ has atoned for them; there is no grounds to send them to the lake of fire in the first place. Contrary to what a lot of people claim; unbelief is not blaspheming the Spirit of God. Blasphemy against the Spirit is the only sin that is unforgivable and that sin is very specific to time and place of witnessing Christ perform miracles in the flesh, knowing He's the Messiah and saying He does this by the power of Satan. That is blaspheming the Holy Ghost. That is the only definition of blaspheming the Holy Ghost. We can be assured that unbelief is not blaspheming the Holy Ghost, because everyone at some point or another is in a state of unbelief.
It seems that we are in agreement on the point that a person cannot atone for their own sin. To this you conclude that they will burn forever with no hope of escape in the vain attempt to pay for their own sins. But it sure seems that they are paying for their own sin. Paying dearly.

Furthermore, you believe that those who will escape "hell" are the "elect". Predestined from the creation to not burn forever. While the other 90+ percent of humanity was predestined to burn forever. Is that correct, or am I missing something here?

Then somehow you conclude that my view is somehow sadistic. ???

Maybe you would feel differently if you were in the 90+ percent that was predestined to burn. Through no choice of your own.
 
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No, I do not believe this. Matter of fact; I said that one can come to redemption by the witness of creation, outside of the written revelation of Scripture and you made fun of me for saying that.
Give me an example of that ever happening.
 
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