- Apr 18, 2019
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Please note (and I'm sure you're aware of this) that for many centuries copies of the Bible were very few (as the printing press was yet to be invented) and that the common man was often illiterate.
Please note also that a case can be made that a reason for the wide spread illiteracy was inflicted in the people by the church. You don't have to agree with me and there are other factors but reading is not a modern invention.
Did you know that one of the results of the reformation was the creation of an education system, especially in North America, to teach people how to read, especially to read the Bible? Did you know that many of the top universities in the USA were founded by protestant churches?
There are some strange consequences of what you're saying mind you. If the episcopalian nature of the church at such a period was a major mistake, in that sola scriptura effectively didn't exist, this would imply that the Church was immediately corrupted in the second century no? Would you agree with my earlier post about this where I suggested just that?
A Biblical case could be made that error was introduced at a very early date. Paul in the book of Acts and many of his epistles address error. Revelation ch 2&3 gives specific examples of error. So that's 1st century error my friend.
Not to sound like a broken record but please allow me to repeat...
I'm answering this in response to and in the context of the OP question: At what point can Protestants say the early/medieval church is not our church?
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