Where is the biblical proof for a private prayer language in tongues?

The Righterzpen

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ACTS 2:8 says, "And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?"

Exactly so.

Every man, regardless of his language group, heard in his own particular language what was being said by the disciples as they praised God and told of His mighty deeds.

Which gives the death knell to the idea that the disciples were speaking the known languages of certain groups only.

Many language groups are named in Acts. But if, let's say, Andrew was speaking French for example - how is it the the German across the square heard him in German unless the emphasis is placed, as it should be, on the hearing in other languages and not on the speaking as is usually done by those as a way of degrading the idea of a special kind of tongue or tongues other than the languages of the world.

Those hearing are still hearing in a foreign language; not unknown gobblely gook.
 
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The Righterzpen

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But we have said - 'Naaa...

If it is not in the book it aint real...

The mode of communication He uses for us today is that book.

In doing so we refuse to hear matters that Jesus said the Holy Spirit would later reveal.

And what did the Holy Spirit later reveal? Is the canon of Scripture now complete? Is there anything else about the death burial and resurrection of Christ that needs to be revealed; for the sake of those coming to redemption?

Secondly we are too quick to condemn a matter as false on the basis of it being abused by some.

What was the point of these signs anyways and who were they given to? And when they stopped; why did they stop? If we answer those questions; we can have a clear understanding of what is true and what is false and why that is so.
 
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His student

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Those hearing are still hearing in a foreign language; not unknown gobblely gook.
The Lord doesn't refer to the language used to pray to the Lord in private and edify ourselves when there is no interpretation as "gobblely gook".

But then - we can each have our own way of referring to the gifts I suppose. The Lord has given us that freedom.

Just do be careful when paraphrasing the scriptures. You will give account for it at the Judgment Seat of Christ.:)

Romans 8:26 and 27 says, "In the same way the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words; and He who searches the hearts knows what the mind of the Spirit is, because He intercedes for the saints according to the will of God."

I don't think I'd want to be someone who referred to the groanings of the Holy Spirit as "gobblely gook". But hey - you're a grown man - you pay your money and you take your chances.
 
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Carl Emerson

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The mode of communication He uses for us today is that book.



And what did the Holy Spirit later reveal? Is the canon of Scripture now complete? Is there anything else about the death burial and resurrection of Christ that needs to be revealed; for the sake of those coming to redemption?



What was the point of these signs anyways and who were they given to? And when they stopped; why did they stop? If we answer those questions; we can have a clear understanding of what is true and what is false and why that is so.


This is where the real problem lies...
The Holy Spirit within early believers was anything but silent.
Rather we read of a dynamic walk in conversation with Him which enabled them to see what were appointed works - it seemed good to them and to the Holy Spirit.

But some of us have insisted on mounting a campaign to invalidate the Holy Spirits living voice within us by demanding the closure of His voice after the scripture was compiled.

We are then left with a perfect book and a muted Holy Spirit.
This was never God's intent, He went to the Cross to make His Spirit available to all as a vibrant loving voice guiding us personally in the Way.

Frankly this 'book only' demand on God's Living Word is a human construction to keep things 'under control' and it is no surprise that much of the church today is well behaved but without a voice in the world.

So we have stopped these sign gifts for the most part - I guess that any gift that Glorifies Jesus is hated by the adversary. Some of us have a renewed understanding of what it means to walk in a dynamic relationship with the Holy Spirit as He intended. This has included seeing Him reactivate gifts long forgotten.

Before you respond with another ton of verses, maybe you should pray about it...
 
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Blade

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He BH I dont know you.. where did this "private prayer language" come from? What happen in the NT happen to me. I asked my Father for sweet sweet Holy Spirit PRAISE GOD GLORY TO JESUS! Man I can't praise Him loud enough strong enough.. but I asked.. I got up.. went to sit down and tongues BAM just came out. Was not trying no one said a word.. right after they prayed.."you go it" they said. They did just what the word said. God can't lie.

I share the short of this story to say.. I pray in tongues.. never in front of the world. But.. never seen it as private. Though I can see how it could be said that way. For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ, for it is the power of God to salvation for everyone who believes.

Not sure what this "target practice" means. Would not be me one was targeting .
 
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Hillsage

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He BH I dont know you.. where did this "private prayer language" come from? What happen in the NT happen to me. I asked my Father for sweet sweet Holy Spirit PRAISE GOD GLORY TO JESUS! Man I can't praise Him loud enough strong enough.. but I asked.. I got up.. went to sit down and tongues BAM just came out. Was not trying no one said a word.. right after they prayed.."you go it" they said. They did just what the word said. God can't lie.

I share the short of this story to say.. I pray in tongues.. never in front of the world. But.. never seen it as private. Though I can see how it could be said that way. For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ, for it is the power of God to salvation for everyone who believes.

Not sure what this "target practice" means. Would not be me one was targeting .
GREAT TESTIMONY...refutes the best theology presented here by the fundamental.

Sadly, the great commission of fundamentals is a great omission of the Holy Spirit. :(
 
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Hillsage

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The main reason you are wrong is because Paul said those who speak in tongues EDIFY themselves. He also said they need to interpret so the whole church could UNDERSTAND and become EDIFIED. Thus, those EDIFIED understood what they were saying. This is not true with today's "knock-off" gifts. They no not what they say.
Gee Dave, what a blistering rebuttal of of of absolutely not one thing I presented biblically in my last post. And now, you only add 'opinionated' misinformation based solely upon your already disproven foundation.

But rather than listen to where you are coming from, I think I'll stand where I have...for the last 47 yrs....with my eyes and ears more open than they were in the days when I too didn't suffer from spiritual ignorance…I enjoyed every minute of it....like so many today. ;)
 
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swordsman1

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Every man, regardless of his language group, heard in his own particular language what was being said by the disciples as they praised God and told of His mighty deeds.

Which gives the death knell to the idea that the disciples were speaking the known languages of certain groups only.

Many language groups are named in Acts. But if, let's say, Andrew was speaking French for example - how is it the the German across the square heard him in German unless the emphasis is placed, as it should be, on the hearing in other languages and not on the speaking as is usually done by those as a way of degrading the idea of a special kind of tongue or tongues other than the languages of the world?

It plainly says it was the disciples who were speaking the foreign languages:

Acts 2:6 "the crowd came together, and were bewildered because each one of them was hearing them speak in his own language."

Luke makes no mention of a "miracle of hearing".
 
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fwGod

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Where is the biblical proof for a private prayer language?
The prayer is private because

1 Corinthians 14:2 For anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to people but to God. Indeed, no one understands them; they utter mysteries by the Spirit.
 
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The Righterzpen

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The Lord doesn't refer to the language used to pray to the Lord in private and edify ourselves when there is no interpretation as "gobblely gook".

Groanings in words that can't be uttered - is not a "language". Why would you have the need to speak to God in a language you don't understand? If you speak something you don't understand; you're not speaking it to edify God. LOL

And who's to say what the apostles were saying was gobbley gook to themselves? If they intended to speak something in Aramaic that the hearer heard as Latin; They still understood what they intended to say. Even if they could not translate for the hearer into Latin.

Keep in mind that these gentile churches were filled with people of all types of linguistic backgrounds. So if someone stood up to proclaim the gospel to a foreigner and there was no one there to explain to the church what the message was; that was not to happen in a public venue.

What would the church have heard?

If the intent of the speaker was to speak Aramaic than those who would have known Aramaic would have heard Aramaic; those who did not understand Aramaic would not have understood what the speaker was saying; unless they had that gift where they would have heard the speaker in their own native language. Yet if they or anyone else could not communicate to the rest of the church in their native language; they were to keep silent.

Now if someone could translate; for the sake of order, there weren't suppose to be more than 3 speakers at any proclamation; coupled with subsequent translators.

So, if you have a congregation where there's 10 different native tongues; that would get chaotic rather quickly.

Then on the flip side; (which seems more plausible):

If you have a foreigner come in and proclaim what they'd heard to a group of people who had no way of understanding them; because they came from a location of an unknown tongue. (At least unknown to that group of people.) In that case, they need a translator. If no one can translate; then they are to be silent.

That seems like it would have happened a lot immediately after Pentecost.

You also have this scenario:

If the speaker spoke to the foreigner post service; they would have some idea of what they intended to say and the foreigner would hear them in their native language, but the two would not be able to carry on a conversation unless they both had the ability to speak and interpret; or unless there was a 3rd party interpreter.

In this way; you could have multiple proclamations and foreign translations of the gospel that would not cause disturbance during the actual service.

So if the speaker understood that this is how it worked; they might come up to the foreigner and say. "I have a message for you from God. I'm going to tell you about the death burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ and you will hear what I'm saying in the language you grew up with; yet I don't know your language, so we can't talk about what I say to you; unless God gives you the ability to speak in a language that I will hear you as in my language."

Now if they both have the gift of tongues; they can talk to each other and if in a public venue, also interpret what each is saying. That was probably not common though because if tongues are a sign for unbelievers; (though primarily Jews) the person receiving the message has probably not heard the gospel; and so would not be likely to have that gift.

That is a very different scenario from someone praying personally in a language they don't understand. There is no purpose for that because God is not bound by human language.

Yet if someone is to stand up and proclaim the gospel to a group of people who can't understand them; then the only one they are speaking to is God. But what's the point in that; He already knows what the gospel is!
 
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William Lefranc

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1 Cor 14:28

but if there is no interpreter, he must keep silent in the church; and let him speak to himself and to God

This would seem to indicate that if someone brings a tongue that is not interpreted that they are uttering a tongue that is meant for private prayer, but bringing it in a public place by mistake.

Private prayers of the Spirit does not need interpretation.
 
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The Righterzpen

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This is where the real problem lies...
The Holy Spirit within early believers was anything but silent.
Rather we read of a dynamic walk in conversation with Him which enabled them to see what were appointed works - it seemed good to them and to the Holy Spirit.

Yet what were those "appointed works". Basically they were tasked with proclaiming the gospel; just like we are tasked with it today. The task hasn't changed any. For certain people that was easier because they could "speak in tongues" (miraculously).

So the commission isn't any different.

But some of us have insisted on mounting a campaign to invalidate the Holy Spirits living voice within us by demanding the closure of His voice after the scripture was compiled.

The Holy Spirit isn't silent; He speaks through the word.

We are then left with a perfect book and a muted Holy Spirit.
This was never God's intent, He went to the Cross to make His Spirit available to all as a vibrant loving voice guiding us personally in the Way.

If that is the case, then why has this "gift" only reemerged 1800 years later and it isn't even what happened in the 1st century?

Frankly this 'book only' demand on God's Living Word is a human construction to keep things 'under control' and it is no surprise that much of the church today is well behaved but without a voice in the world.

One of the greatest revivals in European history began in the 1740's. It was originally just called "The Great Awakening" (it was actually one of the largest of many) and no one was "speaking in tongues".

So we have stopped these sign gifts for the most part - I guess that any gift that Glorifies Jesus is hated by the adversary. Some of us have a renewed understanding of what it means to walk in a dynamic relationship with the Holy Spirit as He intended. This has included seeing Him reactivate gifts long forgotten.

Why would God halt a "dynamic gift" only to resurrect it 1850 years later? The modern tongues movement didn't become prevalent in mainstream Christianity until after WWII. Why is that if this was a gift that had never ceased?
 
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Bible Highlighter

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The Lord doesn't refer to the language used to pray to the Lord in private and edify ourselves when there is no interpretation as "gobblely gook".

But then - we can each have our own way of referring to the gifts I suppose. The Lord has given us that freedom.

Just do be careful when paraphrasing the scriptures. You will give account for it at the Judgment Seat of Christ.:)

Romans 8:26 and 27 says, "In the same way the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words; and He who searches the hearts knows what the mind of the Spirit is, because He intercedes for the saints according to the will of God."

I don't think I'd want to be someone who referred to the groanings of the Holy Spirit as "gobblely gook". But hey - you're a grown man - you pay your money and you take your chances.

The problem is that you think the groanings can be uttered or expressed in words, when the Scriptures say the exact opposite of that fact.

"Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered."
(Romans 8:26) (KJV).

"And the Holy Spirit helps us in our weakness. For example, we don’t know what God wants us to pray for. But the Holy Spirit prays for us with groanings that cannot be expressed in words." (Romans 8:26) (NLT).
 
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The prayer is private because

1 Corinthians 14:2 For anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to people but to God. Indeed, no one understands them; they utter mysteries by the Spirit.

This is talking about the misuse of tongues or publically speaking a real foreign language (i.e. tongues) towards God (without an interpreter), and it is not a private prayer in tongues behind closed doors. How so? Well, the passage says that no man understands him.

"Follow after charity, and desire spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy. For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; "
(1 Corinthians 14:1-2).​

How can a man not understand them if they are praying in tongues behind closed doors? The idea here that "no man understands him" means they are wrongfully talking to God publically around other believers without an interpreter.
 
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Carl Emerson

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Yet what were those "appointed works". Basically they were tasked with proclaiming the gospel; just like we are tasked with it today. The task hasn't changed any. For certain people that was easier because they could "speak in tongues" (miraculously).

So the commission isn't any different.

Agree with this, the commision is the same but the gifts are re-emerging to assist the saints face the challenges of this late hour.

The Holy Spirit isn't silent; He speaks through the word.

He speaks to us as we walk in the way, those who insist on us only hearing Him as we read, want His voice within us otherwise to be silent.

If that is the case, then why has this "gift" only reemerged 1800 years later and it isn't even what happened in the 1st century?

Answered above - first point.

One of the greatest revivals in European history began in the 1740's. It was originally just called "The Great Awakening" (it was actually one of the largest of many) and no one was "speaking in tongues".

Answered above.

Why would God halt a "dynamic gift" only to resurrect it 1850 years later? The modern tongues movement didn't become prevalent in mainstream Christianity until after WWII. Why is that if this was a gift that had never ceased?

Times and seasons are for Him to control, as He said through Peter in Acts 2...

17‘AND IT SHALL BE IN THE LAST DAYS,’ God says,
‘THAT I WILL POUR FORTH OF MY SPIRIT ON ALL MANKIND;
AND YOUR SONS AND YOUR DAUGHTERS SHALL PROPHESY,
AND YOUR YOUNG MEN SHALL SEE VISIONS,
AND YOUR OLD MEN SHALL DREAM DREAMS;

18EVEN ON MY BONDSLAVES, BOTH MEN AND WOMEN,
I WILL IN THOSE DAYS POUR FORTH OF MY SPIRIT
And they shall prophesy.

19‘AND I WILL GRANT WONDERS IN THE SKY ABOVE
AND SIGNS ON THE EARTH BELOW,
BLOOD, AND FIRE, AND VAPOR OF SMOKE.

20‘THE SUN WILL BE TURNED INTO DARKNESS
AND THE MOON INTO BLOOD,
BEFORE THE GREAT AND GLORIOUS DAY OF THE LORD SHALL COME.

21‘AND IT SHALL BE THAT EVERYONE WHO CALLS ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED.’

In this late hour we are again approaching a season of tribulation and deception and believers needs to be fully equipped to deal with it.
 
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fwGod

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This is talking about public prayer in a real foreign language (i.e. tongues) towards God, and it is not a private prayer in tongues behind closed doors. How so? Well, the passage says that no man understands him.
Which is precisely the reason why it's private. No one understands it but God.

"Follow after charity, and desire spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy. For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; "
(1 Corinthians 14:1-2).​
How can a man not understand them if they are praying in tongues behind closed doors?
I didn't say that it had to be behind closed doors in order to be private.

My reason for using the scripture verse is that the prayer is private because no man understands it.
The idea here that "no man understands him" means they are praying in a foreign tongue publically around other believers.
That doesn't negate that no one understood because it was not addressed to men, but to God who gives the unknown utterance.
 
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The Righterzpen

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Agree with this, the commision is the same but the gifts are re-emerging to assist the saints face the challenges of this late hour.

Show me in the Scripture where it says this was going to happen.

The reference you give to to Acts 2; Peter actually stated that the "last days" commenced with Pentecost. You skipped verse 16 which says "This is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel." in reference to them speaking foreign languages.

So if that was the case; why would the signs disappear and then come back?

Scripture talks about them vanishing away. It says nothing about them reemerging.
 
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He BH I dont know you.. where did this "private prayer language" come from? What happen in the NT happen to me. I asked my Father for sweet sweet Holy Spirit PRAISE GOD GLORY TO JESUS! Man I can't praise Him loud enough strong enough.. but I asked.. I got up.. went to sit down and tongues BAM just came out. Was not trying no one said a word.. right after they prayed.."you go it" they said. They did just what the word said. God can't lie.

I share the short of this story to say.. I pray in tongues.. never in front of the world. But.. never seen it as private. Though I can see how it could be said that way. For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ, for it is the power of God to salvation for everyone who believes.

Not sure what this "target practice" means. Would not be me one was targeting .

Where does private prayer in tongues come from?
Another poster here (who is in favor of Continuationism) said that they don't want to be target practice.
I did not say such a thing about a person being target practice or neither did I set out to attack the things of God, either. I even said that I could be wrong by a chance of 1%, but according to the Bible, I lean heavily towards Cessationism or Partial Cessationism (i.e. the cessation of the miraculous gifts and not the cessation of the non-miraculous gifts).

For me: If there is a spiritual practice that is not clearly defined within His Word (the Bible), I am not going to do it. I do this because if the miraculous gifts have ceased by a chance 99%, then the safer play is to stick with what the Bible alone says instead of going off and doing our own thing.

The miraculous gifts done today resembles nothing of what the early church did.
Also, by 2 or 3 witnesses shall every word be established. So if there is a private prayer done in tongues behind closed doors, where is the evidence of it in Scripture that makes it clear?
 
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Which is precisely the reason why it's private. No one understands it but God.

"Follow after charity, and desire spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy. For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; "
(1 Corinthians 14:1-2).​
I didn't say that it had to be behind closed doors in order to be private.

My reason for using the scripture verse is that the prayer is private because no man understands it.

That doesn't negate that no one understood because it was not addressed to men, but to God who gives the unknown utterance.

But the point of the OP is asking for biblical evidence for private prayer in tongues done behind closed doors. I heard of this by others, and yet there is no real biblical proof for it. That is what I am talking about here in this thread. We need Scriptural evidence for such a spiritual practice that clearly involves some kind of working beyond our physical realm.
 
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Where is the biblical proof for a private prayer language?
There is some evidence that there are diverse kinds of tongues 1 Cor 12:10

We also read that

“ 1 Corinthians 14:2. For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.”

Here it says tongues is unto God and no man understands him.

Yet in Acts 2 we read, That this tongue event every man understood them in their own tongue.

Acts 2:4. And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance...6. Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language...8. And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?”

So some distinction
 
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