- Jun 18, 2014
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John 6:53 is quoted in the title.
Well to us apostolic Christian's this makes perfect sense, but then again it rises a certain turmoil as how to look at our heterodox brethren outside the apostolic faith (I lump RCC in here as I've come to understand that the Church consider her (RCC) sacraments valid through the apostolic succession, but denies Orthodox believers to recieve on the RCC as it would in effect be intercommunion etc).
How are we to look at those protestants and all Christians who's not part of a community upholding the succession of the apostles?
They do not inhabit the power to consecrate communion nor to administer any of the sacraments. If any such Christian (which there are plenty of...) die without ever having recieved the body and the blood of Christ in the sacrament of the altar, where would that leave them in the light of John?
They have never received the sacrament thus they do not have life in them. All they've ever received has been a quasi sacrament, even borderline blasphemous in many sects out there on the radical part of the reformation.
How do you guys consider this as orthodox christians? John seems to be pretty straight forward in his gospel about the absolute words of Christ. If we read it literally it's not possible to dismiss.
Of course there are allegorical interpretations alongside the tropological and the anagonical interpretations, but it seems one has to engage in some serious mental gymnastics in order to make room for the sects and heretical Christian's without valid sacraments.
(Brw I know Rome's considered heretical as well, but this question concerns itself with the validity of the eucharist rather than that of orthodox theology)
Well to us apostolic Christian's this makes perfect sense, but then again it rises a certain turmoil as how to look at our heterodox brethren outside the apostolic faith (I lump RCC in here as I've come to understand that the Church consider her (RCC) sacraments valid through the apostolic succession, but denies Orthodox believers to recieve on the RCC as it would in effect be intercommunion etc).
How are we to look at those protestants and all Christians who's not part of a community upholding the succession of the apostles?
They do not inhabit the power to consecrate communion nor to administer any of the sacraments. If any such Christian (which there are plenty of...) die without ever having recieved the body and the blood of Christ in the sacrament of the altar, where would that leave them in the light of John?
They have never received the sacrament thus they do not have life in them. All they've ever received has been a quasi sacrament, even borderline blasphemous in many sects out there on the radical part of the reformation.
How do you guys consider this as orthodox christians? John seems to be pretty straight forward in his gospel about the absolute words of Christ. If we read it literally it's not possible to dismiss.
Of course there are allegorical interpretations alongside the tropological and the anagonical interpretations, but it seems one has to engage in some serious mental gymnastics in order to make room for the sects and heretical Christian's without valid sacraments.
(Brw I know Rome's considered heretical as well, but this question concerns itself with the validity of the eucharist rather than that of orthodox theology)
