The Rule of faith and practice is not scripture "alone"
- Thread starter LoveofTruth
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To all:
Some more verses to consider
Mark 9:41. For whosoever shall give you a cup of water to drink in my name, because ye belong to Christ, verily I say unto you, he shall not lose his reward.”
Before the cross
Romans 8:9. “...Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his”
Hebrews 11:24-27 “By faith Moses, when he was come to years, refused to be called the son of Pharaoh's daughter; 25. Choosing rather to suffer affliction with the people of God, than to enjoy the pleasures of sin for a season; 26. Esteeming the reproach of Christ greater riches than the treasures in Egypt: for he had respect unto the recompence of the reward. 27. By faith he forsook Egypt, not fearing the wrath of the king: for he endured, as seeing him who is invisible.”
1 Corinthians 10 :4. And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.”
Moses and these were before the cross
John 10:8. All that ever came before me are thieves and robbers: but the sheep did not hear them.” Speaking of sheep before he came that they were His sheep.
Some more verses to consider
Mark 9:41. For whosoever shall give you a cup of water to drink in my name, because ye belong to Christ, verily I say unto you, he shall not lose his reward.”
Before the cross
Romans 8:9. “...Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his”
Hebrews 11:24-27 “By faith Moses, when he was come to years, refused to be called the son of Pharaoh's daughter; 25. Choosing rather to suffer affliction with the people of God, than to enjoy the pleasures of sin for a season; 26. Esteeming the reproach of Christ greater riches than the treasures in Egypt: for he had respect unto the recompence of the reward. 27. By faith he forsook Egypt, not fearing the wrath of the king: for he endured, as seeing him who is invisible.”
1 Corinthians 10 :4. And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.”
Moses and these were before the cross
John 10:8. All that ever came before me are thieves and robbers: but the sheep did not hear them.” Speaking of sheep before he came that they were His sheep.
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And this is not the way the verse reads the words “of Jesus” are not there
Acts 16:6,7 KJV “Now when they had gone throughout Phrygia and the region of Galatia, and were forbidden of the Holy Ghost to preach the word in Asia, 7. After they were come to Mysia, they assayed to go into Bithynia: but the Spirit suffered them not.”
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The word Jesus is in the original Greek (Ἰησοῦς Gr 2424), so I don't know why the KJV (and it's derivatives) has omitted the word. Virtually every other translation includes the word Jesus.
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It’s not there it was added most likely
And it still would not mean what you said because all three work in us and different functions and work
God works in us through Jesus Christ
If a text says “Holy Ghost” specifically then it said “Jesus Christ” these are two persons otherwise it leans towards the Oneness doctrine which I do not believe.
When scripture uses the name Jesus Christ it is speaking specifically of the Son of God not the Holy Ghost as I understand and have sought to show from scripture.
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No, modern translations are based on far earlier Greek manuscripts than the KJV. So the word was most likely removed.
This, plus all the other biblical evidence I have presented is adequate proof that the Spirit of Christ is the Holy Spirit, as all bible scholars both ancient and modern agree.
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I don’t see Ἰησοῦς. There
Act 16:7 — ἐλθόντες κατὰ τὴν Μυσίαν ἐπείραζον κατὰ τὴν Βιθυνίαν πορεύεσθαι καὶ οὐκ εἴασεν αὐτοὺς τὸ πνεῦμα
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I disagree with you here and so do many others.
The so called earlier Alexandria’s type text attacks or downplays the deity of Christ in many places as can be shown the TR had it right here and all over.
The so called text used from the so called “older text” to change the TR can be shown in many instances to be false. The so called “church fathers” quote many sections that are found in the King Janes bible from the original text that the later manuscripts from Alexandria omit. Proving the text were there and taken out.
Go read about Westcott and Hort .
And if there can be shown to be a connection between Arius and the early men who denied the deity of Christ and manuscripts that cane around thier time and the modern versions that would be an issue. This is partly what I believed happened and with other men of the past who changed text.
Anyway
I do not want to get into a 45 hour talk of the text proving the KJV here.
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It’s not there it was added most likely
And it still would not mean what you said because all three work in us and different functions and work
God works in us through Jesus Christ
If a text says the Holy Ghost specifically then it said Jesus Christ these are two persons otherwise it leans towards the Oneness heresy
But the KJV does not have it that’s the book I use
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You are quoting from the textus receptus which was based on Greek texts dating from the 12th century. This is what the 1611 KJV was translated from. There have been many more earlier manuscripts discovered since then, dating from the 4th century. The earlier the manuscript the more reliable they are.
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I have already strongly proven that the Spirit of Jesus Christ is not speaking specifically of the Holy Ghost in all my post perhaps go back and reread them again about 1000 times and pray about them.
I have proven it over and over
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You have only given us "your" interpretations. Scripture proves you wrong. You need to refute the passages that clearly demonstrate that the Spirit of Christ is the Holy Spirit, to which all scholars agree. You haven't done so yet.
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Like I said I could easily refute you on your attacks upon the bible (KJV) but I do not want to get into a 45 hour discussion here this is not the post I made. There are many post that deal with the KJV text used over the Alexandrian text
But as you can see there is a difference in what people believe by different text
For example, if scripture says
“God was manifest in the flesh”
the word for God is not “he” but
θεός
theos
and the new versions say
“he appeared in the flesh”
they are not showing who had come and a entire false doctrine denying the deity of Christ can start to be used by some. This can be shown by many verses.
But for another time perhaps.
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If you think all modern versions are wrong in their translation of Acts 16:7, then you need to write to the translation committees of those bibles and inform them of their error. Until a significant proportion change their texts, I'll take what modern Greek scholars say is the correct translation, over the best efforts of scholars 400 years ago using inferior Greek manuscripts.
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I already showed you it is wrong from what I posted and I showed that even within your version it would not be speaking of the same person or the same events specifically.
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