PeaceByJesus
Unworthy servant for the Worthy Lord + Savior
- Feb 20, 2013
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What?! What it is with your repeated misrepresentations! I simply did NOT contend that Luther did not want the removal of those 4 NT books (from the canon), but that the charge that "Luther wanted Jude, James, Hebrews and Revelation removed all because he saw them to be put there by the Catholics to support their own theology" was [mainly] Catholic propaganda, which you have utterly failed to show was otherwise.Good job showing your hypocrisy. You first claim that alegations of Luther wanting the removal of those 4 NT books to be only from Catholic sites yet here you are referencing protestant sites. Even non christian sites talk about this. It's even stated on the Antilegomena.
"About this book of the Revelation of John, I leave everyone free to hold his own opinions. I would not have anyone bound to my opinion or judgment. I say what I feel."( Luther, M. (1999).
In addition to the Fact that Luther was not removing anything from an indisputable canon, or was alone in so doing, nor did he fail to include non-canonical books in his translation. If you cared at all to even give a cursory perusal to linked pages I provided, while you expected me (or actually may not have) me to do so to your links, then you would have seen that I was not contending that Luther excluded certain books from being Scripture proper, but not as some unscholarly maverick, and not as without precedent from some of your so-called church "fathers."
You brought them up in support of your premise that they acted like Luther, charging corruption by the Catholic church based upon their own judgment,
Really? I was referring to this:Acted like Luther? No. So you just didn't get it then because this explanation in reference to me bringing up the non-trinitarian cults is wrong.
"Luther himself saw Jude, James, Hebrews and Revelation to be uninspired, and he wanted them removed all because he saw them to be put there by the Catholics to support their own theology. Just research on it. Mohammad's reasoning was the same when he made the Quran..."
Likewise,
"Now how does this tell someone like Felix Manalo that he can trust the actual Bible we have today, he (as well as the Muslims) claim the NT now is corrupted by the Catholic Church."
Your RC premise is that an Rome, with her infallible magisterium, is essential for knowing what Scripture is, versus using their own judgment , and that if we accept the NT then we assent to that need, and thus should assent to her judgment on what else is the word of God.
You think I do not see your argument? It is what i been countering thru multiple posts, trying in vain to get you to see your fallacy by answering questions i can only perceive as avoiding!
And your argument is that Rome is essential for assuredly knowing what writing are of God (you cannot stop with the NT), and if we affirm what she affirms then we affirm she is trustworthy, and must therefore submit to all her formal judgments. Yet Prots also affirm the Jewish judgements of the OT canon, thus in your logic we should submit to all their 1st century magisterial judgments. Why will you not answer the questions that would logically refute your reasoning? Was a body (a canon) of inspired writings manifestly recognized and established as being authoritative by the time of Christ? Yes, then how then is Rome essential for recognition of what is Scripture? It matters not that the 1st c. canon was not complete, for the principle is that Scripture attests to the recognition and establishment of a canon, and thus a sure table of inspired contents.Well if you are going to argue as to how the RCC shouldn't be followed due to Scripture being the only rule of faith, then why are you accepting an inspired table of contents that they ruled to be accepted.
But consistent with your logic, then since it was nation of Israel under those who sat in the seat of Moses that this recognition and establishment of a canon took place, then just as you equate this recognition to being infallible, and requiring assent to other judgments that came from that source (and i am sure you mean this assent was required before Rome provided its infallibly-define whole canon), then 1st c. souls should have submitted to all the magisterial judgments of this Jewish body.
There was no NT during the time of the apostles and the first christians of the 1CE, and i have repeated the events of Nero so many times. However you reply with guessing games and make false claims that they all had the NT back then.[/QUOTE]
I think you have me confused with RLH.
So here it is again. I hope you may someday realize how absurd this Catholic reasoning is (and which i have heard before). The logically fallacy is that if someone affirms what someone else said is true (the 27 book canon), then they affirm such as wholly trustworthy, and should therefore assent to everything else the source said (if "you still have faith that the NT you have is correctly canonized... then you are displaying actual assurance on the declaration of the Church. And yes, the church has to be infallible" "Yes, the NT canon shows an infallible magisterium. You yourself fully believe the canon is correct and only 27 (nothing more than nothing less), and look at how all over the place your response has been when being shown the irony of your case. This shows an infallible magisterium."). Now since I have a broken watch which i affirm is 100% correct every day thus...This was answered just through your own beliefs. The fact that you still have faith that the NT you have is correctly canonized, and that there is no other books than 27, then you are displaying actual assurance on the declaration of the Church. And yes, the church has to be infallible.
Consistent with your logic then since the NT affirmed the judgment of those who sat in the sat of Moses, then they affirmed the latter is trustworthy, and should have submitted to all its formal judgments.
Let me make spell it out for you more fully: What you do not realize is that what you are actually arguing with your "we showed you what Scripture was, therefore if you agree then you affirm that we are infallible, and are to be submitted to in all other like judgments," is that 1st century souls should have submitted to the judgment of those who sat in the seat of Moses. (Mt. 23:2) Who were the magisterial discerners and stewards of Divine revelation over the corporate body which provided them, and affirmed such, and to whose judgment the NT church concurred.
And indeed affirms that "unto them were committed the oracles of God," (Rm. 3:2) to whom pertaineth" the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises" (Rm. 9:4) and were the inheritors of of Divine guidance, presence and perpetuation as they believed, (Gn. 12:2,3; 17:4,7,8; Ex. 19:5; Lv. 10:11; Dt. 4:31; 17:8-13; Ps, 11:4,9; Is. 41:10, Ps. 89:33,34; Jer. 7:23)
According your logic then, since the NT church concurred with the judgment of those who sat in the seat of Moses (and note that Rome did not provided its infallibly-define canon till after the death of Luther, yet you require submission to her before that, and here, even without any known formal Jewish declaration of a canon, it is clearly manifest a body of authoritative Scripture had been established, and which is understood to be the tripartite Palestinian canon - which the Catholic encyclopedia affirms is the OT of Protestants - and which the Lord can be seen referencing in Luke 24:44, the use of writings of which the Scribe and Pharisees never challenged) then then were displaying actual assurance that the judgment of the Scribe and Pharisees was correct.
And to be consist with your "if you agree on one thing, you must agree to all" logic, then this logically means 1st century souls should have submitted to the all the judgments of those who sat in the seat of Moses in all other things.
Which effectively means you have just invalidated the NT church! For the church actually began in dissent from those who sat in the seat of Moses over Israel, (Mt. 23:2) who were the historical instruments and stewards of Scripture. And instead they followed an itinerant Preacher whom the magisterium rejected, and whom the Messiah reproved the from Scripture as being the supreme preserved standard, (Mk. 7:2-16) and established His Truth claims upon scriptural substantiation in word and in power, as did the early church as it began upon this basis. (Mt. 22:23-45; Lk. 24:27,44; Jn. 5:36,39; Acts 2:14-35; 4:33; 5:12; 15:6-21;17:2,11; 18:28; 28:23; Rm. 15:19; 2Cor. 12:12, etc.)
Which is a major unScriptural fallacy. Nowhere was ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility essential for the providing and preservation of faith. The OT "supreme court" certainly had authority, with dissent from it being a capital offense, (Dt. 17:8-13) but which does not mean they possessed ensured infallibility as per Rome;'s conditions. Moreover, God often raised up men from without the historical magisterium to provide Truth and preserve it, even in dissent from the historical magisterium. Which again, is how the church began.And yes, the church has to be infallible.
I think you have me confused with RLH. But note again that if you are going to make the overall early recognition of the 27 book NT canon into meaning that "this shows an infallible magisterium," and thus is ot be submitted to in all its judgments, (despite the fact that it was not yet infallibly defined and indisputable), then you need to require that the NT church should have submitted to the magisterium over Israel, which recognized and established the canon which the NT quoted and referenced from as authoritative.As i told you, quote in the statements Irenaeus made in regards to the church, you kept on bringing him up and he gives the explanation there yet you refuse to quote it.
Now I stayed up even longer just to provide this refutation, and so i will get back in a few hours (and did with editing this AM), God willing.
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