How come good Friday is only two days from Easter Sunday?

AFrazier said:

Right ... because of the uncleanness and rebellion of the Israelites. That's essentially what I said. So the "goat" that remained in Jerusalem was possibly representative of Israel, who later suffered under the Roman siege and was eventually pushed out of Judea altogether, and scattered to the four corners of the earth as God promised if they continued in their disobedience.

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But its blood was sprinkled on The Ark

Gerhard Ebersoehn said:

That is completely senseless. The men said “TODAY”—“the First Day of the week”—“is…” Luke 24:1—“today is the third day since … crucified”. It was BEFORE “the third day since”, <<has passed>>. “The day (was) far spent … towards, the evening”. which is BEFORE the next day because it is BEFORE sunset and BEFORE the <<day has passed>>.

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Shalom Gerhard, it is no nonsense at all. The Greek word that the translators translated as "is" does not mean "is." This Greek word (G71) is used many times in the NT and the ONLY time it is translated "is" just happens to be here in Luke 24:21. Does not that raise a flag for you?

Think along these lines. If I would tell you, "Today, Wednesday, leads (G71) Tuesday away," would you think I was saying, "Today, Wednesday, IS (G71) Tuesday?" No, but the PLAIN Greek is saying that "the third day" was being led away (to go or depart), not that "today IS the third day." It's not rocket science, it's just plain Greek. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.

Yeshua HaDerekh said:

No, the sheaf was waved on "the morrow AFTER the Sabbath" which for both our scenarios was on Yom HaBikkurim, on Sunday.

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Dude, you're starting to sound like a broken record with some of this stuff. We already went over the Pentecost count. Stop trying to use your theological interpretation. It was counted from the 16th. This is a documented fact. It's history. It's how it was done. The "Sabbath" in that passage was interpreted and determined by the priests in charge to be the first holy convocation of the Feast of Unleavened Bread on the 15th. Ergo, the 16th fell in this case on a Saturday.

Yeshua HaDerekh said:

But its blood was sprinkled on The Ark

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Not in the first century AD it wasn't. The ark was already long gone. Perhaps if it was still there, their blood would have been poured out over it. I don't know. No one will ever know.

ImAHebrew said:

The Greek word that the translators translated as "is" does not mean "is." This Greek word (G71) is used many times in the NT and the ONLY time it is translated "is" just happens to be here in Luke 24:21. Does not that raise a flag for you?

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No, It is idiomatic in just about all tongues to say 'Today' and to mean, 'Today is'. But yes, 'agei' does mean something which was not explicitly translated, that meaning being something so intrinsic it needs not be translated explicitly. Luke not far away, expressed the meaning at that STAGE IN the day, "the day is toward evening and far spent" v.29.

But, contrary you, note the Present, 'agei', not, <<the third day was over>>; not even <<the third day has passed>>.
"Because [hoti] pros [before] late afternoon [hesperan] is [estin] kai [and] is declined [kekliken] day [hehmera]". 'Agei' is Continuous Present; no Perfect.

What do you do with "since" if "today", <<is past>>? Easy. You throw it away. Ja. What you did with it, threw it away.

ImAHebrew said:

Shalom AFrazier, the post I originally made (Post 441) is linked in this last post that you responded to. Why don't you produce a post # after 441, that is in response to it. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.

P.S. Now, I could be wrong, and I hate to be wrong, but I did search well over 100 posts after my post.

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The first time you brought it up was actually post 401. I responded in post 404. You responded back in post 413. I responded again in post 415.

AFrazier said:

It Pentecost was counted from the 16th. This is a documented fact. It's history. It's how it was done. The "Sabbath" in that passage was interpreted and determined by the priests in charge to be the first holy convocation of the Feast of Unleavened Bread on the 15th. Ergo, the 16th fell in this case on a Saturday.

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Good! <Saturday> <<the 16th>> was the first of "fifty days counted", right!

AFrazier said:

Not in the first century AD it wasn't. The ark was already long gone. Perhaps if it was still there, their blood would have been poured out over it. I don't know. No one will ever know.

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Yes I know that but the animal was still sacrificed.

Gerhard Ebersoehn said:

No, It is idiomatic in just about all tongues to say 'Today' and to mean, 'Today is'. But yes, 'agei' does mean something which was not explicitly translated, that meaning being something so intrinsic it need not be translated explicitly. Luke not far away, expressed the meaning at that STAGE IN the day, "the day is toward evening and far spent" v.29.

But, contrary you, note the Present, 'agei', not, <<the third day was over>>; not even <<the third day has passed>>.
"Because [hoti] pros [before] late afternoon [hesperan] is [estin] kai [and] is declined [kekliken] day [hehmera]". 'Agei' is Continuous Present; no Perfect.

What do you do with "since" if "today", <<is past>>? Easy. You throw it away. Ja. What you did with it, threw it away.

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Shalom Gerhard, that Greek word "agei" (G71) was used to express that that day they were speaking on LEADS the third day away, not that it IS the third day. And verse 29 does not use G71, and you should also recognize that Yeshua had opened the Scriptures to them concerning what Moses and the Prophets wrote about him. Just consider how long Paul took to do the same thing:

Acts 28:23 And when they had appointed him (Paul) a day, there came many to him into [his] lodging; to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of Elohim, persuading them concerning Yeshua, both out of the law of Moses, and [out of] the prophets, from morning till evening.

Yeshua EXPOUNDED those SAME Scriptures, and I maintain to you that He also spent a great deal of that FOURTH day, which was leading the third day away, to do so. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.

AFrazier said:

Dude, you're starting to sound like a broken record with some of this stuff. We already went over the Pentecost count. Stop trying to use your theological interpretation. It was counted from the 16th. This is a documented fact. It's history. It's how it was done. The "Sabbath" in that passage was interpreted and determined by the priests in charge to be the first holy convocation of the Feast of Unleavened Bread on the 15th. Ergo, the 16th fell in this case on a Saturday.

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So you are saying the 15th of ULB was on Friday and He was killed on Thursday the 14th? The eyewitness account from the road to Emmaus proves that false. So the morrow after the Sabbath is on the Sabbath...?

ImAHebrew said:

Shalom Gerhard, it is no nonsense at all. The Greek word that the translators translated as "is" does not mean "is." This Greek word (G71) is used many times in the NT and the ONLY time it is translated "is" just happens to be here in Luke 24:21. Does not that raise a flag for you?

Think along these lines. If I would tell you, "Today, Wednesday, leads (G71) Tuesday away," would you think I was saying, "Today, Wednesday, IS (G71) Tuesday?" No, but the PLAIN Greek is saying that "the third day" was being led away (to go or depart), not that "today IS the third day." It's not rocket science, it's just plain Greek. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.

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<<the PLAIN Greek is saying that "the third day" was being led away (to go or depart),>>

The Greek is not <saying>!
The Greek is not Past Tense, <<"the third day" was>> whatever.
The Greek is not Passive Voice, <<"the third day" was being>> whatever.
The Greek is not <<lead away>>; the Greek, 'agei', is, "is".
The Greek is not <<that "today IS the third day.">>
The Greek is that "today is the third day SINCE..."!

AFrazier said:

Dude, you're starting to sound like a broken record with some of this stuff. We already went over the Pentecost count. Stop trying to use your theological interpretation. It was counted from the 16th. This is a documented fact. It's history. It's how it was done. The "Sabbath" in that passage was interpreted and determined by the priests in charge to be the first holy convocation of the Feast of Unleavened Bread on the 15th. Ergo, the 16th fell in this case on a Saturday.

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The scripture is fulfilled by Yeshua's death on Friday the 14th, The Sabbath on the 15th (both The weekly Sabbath AND ULB) and Yom HaBikkurim on the 16th (the morrow AFTER the Sabbath), Sunday. Yes, a broken record because the truth IS a broken record by definition...

Yeshua HaDerekh said:

So you are saying the 15th of ULB was on Friday and He was killed on Thursday the 14th? The eyewitness account from the road to Emmaus proves that false. So the morrow after the Sabbath is on the Sabbath...?

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No. I am saying the 15th of ULB was on Friday and He was killed on Friday the 15th.

Yeshua HaDerekh said:

The scripture is fulfilled by Yeshua's death on Friday the 14th, The Sabbath on the 15th (both The weekly Sabbath AND ULB) and Yom HaBikkurim on the 16th (the morrow AFTER the Sabbath), Sunday. Yes, a broken record because the truth IS a broken record by definition...

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Let's try this a different way. Let's go back to the root questions again.

What date is the first day when leaven could not be eaten?

What date did they kill the passover?

AFrazier said:

Not at all. But I am saying that whether he was the passover lamb or not, he was still crucified on the 15th. It's not about the specifics. It's about the act. He didn't die on the 14th. But neither was he in his first year. He was also the scapegoat throughout the scenario, if you've ever happened to notice. He and Barabbas were offered up to be chosen over. Christ became the scapegoat and was led out of the town with the sins of the people. That didn't happen on the Day of Atonement. But he was the scapegoat nonetheless.

I can't emphasize this enough ... theology can't decide the factual dates.

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Ja, the more you emphasise this, the better, so everyone can see, see for himself ... good, man, good!
AFrazier: <<he was still crucified on the 15th.>>

AFrazier said:

No. I am saying the 15th of ULB was on Friday and He was killed on Friday the 15th.

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We agree on the timing but not on the dates or the days of the week.

AFrazier said:

Let's try this a different way. Let's go back to the root questions again.

What date is the first day when leaven could not be eaten?

What date did they kill the passover?

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The evening of the 14th (the 15th). On the 14th by 3 PM.

Yeshua HaDerekh said:

We agree on the timing but not on the dates or the days of the week.

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Correct. We are not at odds on the Friday crucifixion or the Sunday resurrection. But you are interpreting theologically and ignoring three gospels. I'm taking the scripture at face value. The disciples made ready the passover. It is plainly stated that they did so. His last supper was, therefore, on the cusp of the 14th/15th, and his crucifixion, by deduction, on the 15th the following morning.

ImAHebrew said:

Shalom Jan001, thank you for your effort in responding. Again, Abraham was not a Gentile, he was a Hebrew (Genesis 14:13), just like the offspring that came through the seed given to Abraham from Sarah, were Hebrews (Genesis 39:14 & Genesis 41:12-Joseph), and (Exodus 2:11-Moses and a fellow Hebrew), and (Exodus 10:3-All of the SLAVES in Egypt, who had Yahweh as their Elohim). Now, all of the offspring THROUGH Sarah were Hebrews, as Abraham was a Hebrew, and ALL Jews are Hebrews, but not all Hebrews are Jews, only those who are of the Kingdom of Judah, are Jews, or IF they were converted. That Hebrew designation comes from Abraham, not from anyone else.

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I do see what you mean.

It is claimed that the term "Hebrew" comes from "Eber", the name of a descendant of Shem, one of the three sons of Noah. Genesis 10:21-26

It seems to me that Abram was called a Hebrew by Moses because Abram was a descendant of Eber and Shem. All people who were born after the flood were descendants of Noah and his three sons, unless there were some other people on the Ark who helped take care of the animals and the Holy Spirit didn't think it relevant to this history of Noah and his descendants.

So then, Abram was just a Hebrew/Semite who was living with all the other Hebrews/Semites in Ur of the Chaldeans. Perhaps Abraham was first called a Chaldean because that is where he lived.

According to Scripture, Abraham originally was from Ur in Chaldea. Scripture seems to suggest that there was only one language for all people until the Tower of Babel. And according to a Bible Timeline that I saw, Abraham was approx. 48 years old when the Tower of Babel was built. What language was spoken by all people before God intervened in the building of the Tower of Babel? I don't think anyone knows for certain. Timeline for the History of Judaism
The Semitic peoples traveled to Canaan except for Terah and his relatives including Abram. They decided to settle in Haran instead of traveling all the way to Canaan even though their original plan was to travel to Canaan.

So then, "Hebrew" comes from "Eber" and the Hebrew language is classified as a "Semitic" language which is named after Shem, the son of Noah.

Abram was just one of many Semites/Hebrews originating from Ur in Chaldea until God called him and made His covenant with him and renamed him "Abraham". There were no "Jews" until Abraham's great-grandson "Judah" was born.

Now, Abraham had other children/offspring who were Gentiles, not because of Abraham, but because of WHO it was that bore those children (Hagar and Keturah), and even Esau sold his birthright and became a Gentile. You are sort of correct about the "promise," and those who are part of the promise, are Hebrews.

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When did the term "Gentile" come into practice? There is no mention of the term "Gentile" in the OT.

The other part of your post. Are you sure you would not like to learn WHY Paul circumcised Timothy and NOT Titus?

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Please enlighten me.

Finally, we could start a whole new thread about how Paul taught that it was only DOERS of the Law of Moses who were justified, and how Yeshua declared that if anyone breaks even the slightest Law of Moses and teaches others to do so, will be considered least. The Apostle Paul's teachings about Salvation are twisted and distorted by the Lawless, who are unlearned and unstable, so don't be carried away with them, in their confusion. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.

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Jesus Christ taught those things about the Law of Moses/first covenant before He died on the cross. His death on the cross finished/fulfilled the first covenant and thereby made it obsolete/no longer in force.



Jesus Christ's death on the cross ratified/mediated His new and better covenant. The first covenant is no longer in force. Jesus Christ's death on the cross finished/ended the first covenant.

The first covenant and its Law of Moses is obsolete and no longer in force. Jesus made a new and better covenant (Law of Christ) for all people of all nations and He will never break His (new) covenant with His Father.

Yeshua HaDerekh said:

The evening of the 14th (the 15th). On the 14th by 3 PM.

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Relative to your above answers, what date are these two passages representing?

Mark 14:12 — And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover?

Luke 22:7 — Then came the day of unleavened bread, when the passover must be killed.