Shalom Jan001, thank you for your effort in responding. Again, Abraham was not a Gentile, he was a Hebrew (Genesis 14:13), just like the offspring that came through the seed given to Abraham from Sarah, were Hebrews (Genesis 39:14 & Genesis 41:12-Joseph), and (Exodus 2:11-Moses and a fellow Hebrew), and (Exodus 10:3-All of the SLAVES in Egypt, who had Yahweh as their Elohim). Now, all of the offspring THROUGH Sarah were Hebrews, as Abraham was a Hebrew, and ALL Jews are Hebrews, but not all Hebrews are Jews, only those who are of the Kingdom of Judah, are Jews, or IF they were converted. That Hebrew designation comes from Abraham, not from anyone else.
I do see what you mean.
It is claimed that the term "Hebrew" comes from "Eber", the name of a descendant of Shem, one of the three sons of Noah. Genesis 10:21-26
It seems to me that Abram was called a Hebrew by Moses because Abram was a descendant of Eber and Shem.
All people who were born after the flood were descendants of Noah and his three sons, unless there were some other people on the Ark who helped take care of the animals and the Holy Spirit didn't think it relevant to this history of Noah and his descendants.
So then, Abram was just
a Hebrew/Semite who was living with
all the other Hebrews/Semites in Ur of the Chaldeans. Perhaps Abraham was first called a Chaldean because that is where he lived.
According to Scripture, Abraham originally was from Ur in Chaldea. Scripture seems to suggest that there was only one language for all people until the Tower of Babel. And according to a Bible Timeline that I saw, Abraham was approx. 48 years old when the Tower of Babel was built. What language was spoken by all people before God intervened in the building of the Tower of Babel? I don't think anyone knows for certain.
Timeline for the History of Judaism
"The Hebrew language is classified as a Semitic (or Shemitic, from Shem, the son of Noah) language.
During the time of the Sumerians and the Egyptians,
the Semitic peoples lived in Sumeria and traveled west into the land of Canaan."
A Short History of the Hebrew Language
The Semitic peoples traveled to Canaan except for Terah and his relatives including Abram. They decided to settle in Haran instead of traveling all the way to Canaan even though their original plan was to travel to Canaan.
Genesis 11:31
Terah took
Abram his son and Lot the son of Haran, his grandson, and Sar′ai his daughter-in-law, his son Abram’s wife, and
they went forth together from Ur of the Chalde′ans to go into the land of Canaan; but when they came to Haran, they settled there. rsv
So then, "Hebrew" comes from "Eber" and the Hebrew language is classified as a "Semitic" language which is named after Shem, the son of Noah.
Abram was just one of many Semites/Hebrews originating from Ur in Chaldea
until God called him and made His covenant with him and renamed him "Abraham". There were no "Jews" until Abraham's great-grandson "Judah" was born.
Now, Abraham had other children/offspring who were Gentiles, not because of Abraham, but because of WHO it was that bore those children (Hagar and Keturah), and even Esau sold his birthright and became a Gentile. You are sort of correct about the "promise," and those who are part of the promise, are Hebrews.
When did the term "Gentile" come into practice? There is no mention of the term "Gentile" in the OT.
The other part of your post. Are you sure you would not like to learn WHY Paul circumcised Timothy and NOT Titus?
Please enlighten me.
Finally, we could start a whole new thread about how Paul taught that it was only DOERS of the Law of Moses who were justified, and how Yeshua declared that if anyone breaks even the slightest Law of Moses and teaches others to do so, will be considered least. The Apostle Paul's teachings about Salvation are twisted and distorted by the Lawless, who are unlearned and unstable, so don't be carried away with them, in their confusion. Blessings in The Name, ImAHebrew.
Jesus Christ taught those things about the Law of Moses/first covenant before He died on the cross. His death on the cross finished/fulfilled the first covenant and thereby made it obsolete/no longer in force.
Hebrews 8:13
In speaking of a new covenant he treats the first as obsolete. And what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away. rsv
Hebrews 9:15
For this reason Christ is the mediator of a new covenant, that those who are called may receive the promised eternal inheritance—now that he has died as a ransom to set them free from the sins committed under the first covenant. niv
Jesus Christ's death on the cross ratified/mediated His new and better covenant. The first covenant is no longer in force. Jesus Christ's death on the cross finished/ended the first covenant.
John 19:30
When Jesus had received the vinegar, he said, “
It is finished”; and he bowed his head and gave up his spirit. rsv
Romans 10:4
For
Christ is the end of the law (of Moses), that every one who has faith may be justified. rsv
Hebrews 7:12
For
when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well. rsv
Hebrews 6:20
where
Jesus has gone as a forerunner on our behalf,
having become a high priest for ever after the order of Melchiz′edek. rsv
Hebrews 7:11
Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levit′ical priesthood (for under it the people received the law {of Moses}), what further need would there have been for another priest {Jesus Christ} to arise after the order of Melchiz′edek, rather than one named after the order of Aaron? rsv
The first covenant and its Law of Moses is obsolete and no longer in force. Jesus made a new and better covenant (Law of Christ) for all people of all nations and He will never break His (new) covenant with His Father.