1.)
Strong's Greek: 5331. φαρμακεία (pharmakeia) -- the use of medicine, drugs or spells
The Greek word "pharmakeia" means "magic, sorcery, enchantment"
Okay I'm not sure it actually means that. When you see the definition "magic, sorcery, enchantment" that definition is coming from the translation of the word, and it's not necessarily anymore correct a definition than the translation itself (more on this at 2). The main use of one of "medicine" or "drugs (including those from a pharmacy)", and not actually "Harry Potter wizardry" as "seen on TV". But, the question is, in what context? Is there one? Is it talking about use of drugs in idol worship? Just general drug use? Medicine in general? Is it "sinful" and if so, by what actual commandment?
but it is also where we good the root word for "pharmacy", so I've seen people argue that that command prohibits the use of pharmaceutical drugs, but I think that is taking the connection too far.
Is it "too far"? How do we determine this. I believe a case could be made that this "sorcery/pharmacy drugs" is specifically targeting drugs from a pharmacy, and not general drug use for "ephoria" at all. This is because we have stories about people seeking medical treatment for ailments, instead of relying on the Lord for healing; and this is what was the "problem" the lack of faith in God being demonstrated by the pill-takers. 2 Chronicles 16:12, Luke 8:43
Now wouldn't this be something? If the scripture is actually speaking about pharamacy drugs and seeking relief from doctors; and not talking about people smoking marijuana at all? I wonder, how many people who have said "sinful!" about a guy smoking marijuana day after day, would take the news that their pharamcy drugs are the real focus of the scripture? Do you think all of the people taking prescription pills and such would "repent" and stop? I wonder.
A command against using drugs to poison someone as was done with witchcraft
I've read that as well, I'll note this later in the "occult" entry.
2.) The word translated as "fornincation" does not necessarily refer to sexual relations between unmarried people, but it refers to unlawful sexual conduct, which is all sexual conduct except that between a husband and wife.
But the Greek word itself means "harlotry" coming from the root "to sell"; so when you're seeing a definition for "inappropriate contenteia" that says "unlawful sexual acts between unmarried people" it is really circular definitions: it's defining the word according to the way it's translated, and, often as it means in contemporary language; while that may not be the intended use at all. It looks to me to be specifically meaning "harlotry" as in "selling sex for money" but even then, it could be talking specifically about pagan temple prostitution; the word "fornication" itself coming from "fornax" meaning, temple prostitutes. I can't be certain, can you?
But the real question is, where is the commandment specifically prohibiting the act? If there's no commandment, how can it be "sinful" since sin is the breaking of a commandment? Bear in mind, I'm not saying, going around having relationships is an edifying act, but, is it sinful? Are we having to "backward engineer" commandments now? Why wouldn't God make this clear with a "do no sex except in marriage" commandment? Could it not also be that Paul is speaking out against acts that, while not sinful in and of themselves, can cause harm and sorrow if indulged in recklessly?
There's too many factors in here that cause me, personally, from saying "it's a sin" because, how can a person judge such matters with so little clarity, and having to "backward engineer" sin out of statements which have no "do not do such" explicitly stated? Even the "clear" ones sometimes aren't clear. "Do not take the name of the Lord in vain" is not really that clear of a command.
3.) The Bible does not specifically prohibit gambling, but it does warn against the love of money and attempts to get rich quick.
Well, I presume that would cover stockmarket portfolios, investings, and all manner of, trying to make money from nothing. Even getting a job could be seen by some as love of money. When there's no explicit command, what are we doing? Slippery sloping into "it's all sin all day every day"?
4.) The Bible records the use of all kinds of instruments, but the only time that God rejected music was when it didn't come from the heart (Amos 5:23).
Well, many Christians would disagree. They say that "faith comes by the Word of God" and "what is not of faith is sin" and then say "under the new covenant, God commanded us to sing, but made no statement concenring playing instruments; thus those who play instruments are guilty of unrepentant sin and will burn": if you say "David played instruments" they will say "David is old covenant; David killed people and was a bloody man, should we do the same?" Trust me, I was one of these people for a long time. I was as Pharisitic as you could get. If you would've encountered me twenty years ago, right now I'd be telling everyone on this forum how they were "all false Christians, in willful ignorance and unrepentant rebellion against the commandments, and were all going to burn in hell for all of time; and all of your faith is in vain." Oh and when you said "But I love God and confessed Christ" I would've said "You do not love God else you would come out of your willful disobedience and come join my church; the only true church; but if you will not listen to me, then God will send you to hell" "But just because we have musical instruments in our services?" and I would bellow "SINNER! You will burn in the fire of the omnipotent and just wrath of the Holy God, whose divine justice cannot turn a blind eye to your willful musical playings; justice demand you burn forever for playing your instruments during worship! REPENT!"
Now, I no longer am that, but the point really is still there.
5.) There Bible also records a number of instances of dancing and Ecclesiastes 3:4 says that there is a time to mourn and a time to dance, so there can be times when it is appropriate or inappropriate to dance. However, dancing also can have a sexual aspect to it and we should be careful not do something that would cause others to sin (Matthew 18:6).
These people claim
all dancing can incite lust, and is therefore "sinful": there are a number of little old ladies that condemn people who play the electric guitar because the sound is "sinfully lust inspiring": so if we're just going by opinions of what is and isn't "lustful"; why is everyone ignoring the little old ladies on the front bench and burning their saxophones and electric guitars, and abstain from dancing that devlish "lustful movement" which is the "appearence of evil"? Do you realize I missed prom because of how sinful it is? You don't even want to know about how sinful a woman wearing anything but a very long dress is. Or, how sinful and rebellious and shameful is a man with long hair, or, a woman with short hair.
6.) See unlawful sexual conduct outside of that between a husband and wife.
I don't know; the word looks to me to mean "harlotry"; I'm just saying. And I don't even see a command "do no harlotry": I know we should cry out "But harlotry
has to be sinful!" but I'd have to ask, if it's so sinful: why isn't it on the ten commandments somewhere? You would think "Wow that is a sin!" would be able to point at a "do no such thing" explicit commanment, would you not?
7.) The Bible warns against witchcraft (Deuteronomy 18:10-16, Leviticus 19:26).
Again, that word being translated. I'm not so sure "witchcraft" is meaning what we think it means today. I know it's debatable whether or not this really means, someone who makes poisons for the intent of killing people. A poison maker. It could also men, someone who uses drugs to give to people, causing hallucinations and such to pass of to people that they have "powers from God" in order to deceive them. These words are not as cut-and-dry as people are thinking that they are. Also, if we're back at the 364(?) commandments, are we preaching all of it as "sinful" such as the old, no mixed weave in garments: no wearing men's clothing for women, etc.?
8.) The Bible warns against getting a tattoo (Leviticus 19:28), but there is the issue of whether or not it was referring to a specific pagan practice or to tattoos in general.
I'd ask the same as above, about the clothing commandments; but this also spotlights what I was saying above about the ambiguity of many of these things. Just as this tatooing
may have been putting pagan practies off-limits to curb idolatry; the same can be said of many of the things above. Fornication may be talking about a specific pagan form of temple prostitution, etc.
