AMR
Presbyterian (PCA) - Bona Fide Reformed
- Jun 19, 2009
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You are missing a careful examination of the passage that you already see in the Hebrew and the KJV rendering.I missed it. Going back I see a reference to Genesis 4:7. Is that the one?
The MT is: הֲל֤וֹא אִם־תֵּיטִיב֙ שְׂאֵ֔ת וְאִם֙ לֹ֣א תֵיטִ֔יב לַפֶּ֖תַח חַטָּ֣את רֹבֵ֑ץ וְאֵלֶ֙יךָ֙ תְּשׁ֣וּקָת֔וֹ וְאַתָּ֖ה תִּמְשָׁל־בּֽוֹ׃
A literal rendering of this would be: "Not if you will do well lifting up? But if you will not do well at the door sin is crouching. And against you is his desire. But you shall rule over him."
This obviously needs cleaning up. I would render it: "If you do well will you not be lifted up? But if you do not do well sin is crouching at the door. It's desire is for you but you must rule over it."
The KJV renders it: "If thou doest well, shalt thou not be accepted? and if thou doest not well, sin lieth at the door. And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him."
The ESV renders it: "If you do well, will you not be accepted? And if you do not do well, sin is crouching at the door. Its desire is for you, but you must rule over it.”
The NIV renders it: "If you do what is right, will you not be accepted? But if you do not do what is right, sin is crouching at your door; it desires to have you, but you must rule over it.”
The NASB renders it: "If you do well, will not your countenance be lifted up? And if you do not do well, sin is crouching at the door; and its desire is for you, but you must master it.”
The only significant difference I see is how they render the final verb. KJV renders it like a command or even a promise - "you shall rule over it". The others render it as a command - "you must rule over it". The verb itself is Qal imperfect and so both of these senses fit within its semantic range.
All that to say, I don't see the contradiction. What am I missing?
The "his" in the KJV refers to Cain's brother, Abel. The rendering of all the modern versions underlies the Anabaptist Pelagian issue that has led so many astray from the actual intended meaning that I referred to in my post. That is, Cain shall ever have the right of primogeniture, and in all things shall his brother (Abel) be subject unto Cain. These words are not spoken of sin ("its"), as many have wrongly understood them, but of Abel's ("his") submission to Cain as his superior, and the words are spoken to remove Cain's envy. The passage had nothing to do with the notions of mastery over sin as so many are led to believe by the poor translation by modern versions.
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