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My conscious does not bother me as to the wicked being punished forever. I just wish we did not have to go look at them. John 15 is a good chapter to show how the wicked people are as hating God...hating the Father and the Son.
I don't see anywhere where a time is given or a scene as
the lake of fire is destroyed in the future. I think it will be
in Edom's land and last for ever and ever. God will be angry
with those people for ever. He can't let them out. How would
He trust them? They died in their sin/iniquity. When God
remembers the sin of a person or place in several places in
the Bible, it means they are punished.
I noticed you refused to answer any of the questions I presented about the concept of time length for punishment in hell....come to think of it, none of you all even try to answer the questions I am asking of your position...how interesting.Being punished for one's crimes is a whole lot different than torturing somebody waaaaaaay beyond what the crime calls for, though.
There are words for things like that.
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That is totally contradictory. You said the punishment is not beautiful but God's perfect justice being meted out on depraved humans is beautiful? That is saying the same thing. Oh, and how exactly is it beautiful to torture people alive for all eternity? Can you honestly say it is beautiful to hear the screams f
The key word here is... "die."
Not eternal torture in flames.
As for God being our spouse or loved one: Well, Scripture says the church (i.e. God's people) is His bride.
I find it interesting that I am 68 years old and did not realize there were Christian groups who do not believe that Hell is eternal but is rather an "unquenchable fire" that totally annihilates the unbeliever. First of all, I know that JW's have their own view on Hell
and I'm not a JW! I have concluded however after looking at some good studies on this that Hell is not eternal torment and that the very few verses that "sound like" Hell is eternal are either parables of Jesus or a picture of being lost (such as in Revelation). I won't even attempt to list all the scriptures and words associated
with Hell but it has always been very hard for me to believe that God would find it necessary to punish souls for eternity simply because they chose not to receive eternal life. In my prayers I have many times brought this up to God and asked why it would be necessary for unbelievers to suffer for eternity. Now
I am convinced that somewhere along the line, not long after the early church, that the idea of an eternal Hell was introduced as a way of frightening people into becoming a part of the church. In the studies of the various words used for "Hell" it becomes apparent to me that 90%+ of the Bible is clearly talking about the grave and
Why would Jesus not speak the truth to the Pharisees and Sadducees? Why would He let them continue to believe false doctrine instead of telling them the truth so they could be saved? That does not make any sense at all.unconsciousness. Why would 90%+ of the Bible use a word that is not about eternal torment and then suddenly Jesus changes the meaning of the word? The answer is that Jesus did NOT change the meaning, he was simply speaking in parables in order to hide the true meaning from the Pharisees or whoever else had their own beliefs about death, eternity, and Hell.
I suggest that your read real credible, verifiable, historical information instead of the nonsense you posted.Hell was used by religious authorities to keep people in line with the state which paid for their churches.
Well, here's why my comment isn't contradictory: The "beauty" is not in the fiery torments of Hell but, in the perfection of God's justice (and holiness). God's punishment perfectly answers the terrible depravity of human wickedness and in this respect there is "beauty" in it. God's punishment is neither too much, nor is it too little. His punishment is not afflicted with any of the weaknesses or ignorance of human justice; it is perfect. In the perfection of His punishment - as there is in all things that are perfect - there is a kind of beauty.
And you misunderstand (or simply want to deny) what "die" in the sense of the second death really means.
It does. But if you think there is a precise parallel between the Bride of Christ, the Church, and the bride of a man, you wildly misunderstand Scripture.
Selah.
How long would you say a person rejecting the Son and His Father should be tormented? This is hate, and even a person
that hates their brother can't have eternal life.
1 John 3:15
Hebrews 2:2-3
2 Thessalonians 2:12
2 Thessalonians 1:9
They died as of the world, and the world hated Him/Jesus Christ.
After a reply like this, I see no need to continue to debate this with you.
Believe whatever you like (despite the truth of God's Word and the real world around you).
Hmmm...I get that you're likely a bit worn out with all the debating you've already done in this thread, but, regardless, your reply is simply a cop-out.
I believe what I like quite apart from your permission to do so. And those of my beliefs related to this matter of ECT are thoroughly anchored in Scripture. Apparently, though, you are so at a loss as to how to answer my comments that you feel it is necessary to imply I believe contrary to reality. But ad hominem (however obliquely made) is still ad hominem and as such remains the frequent last resort of the failed argument.
Selah.
This is a grammatical argument. Strong's is a concordance which defines Greek words. When I posted grammatical arguments about the original Greek you blew it off with this argument.The english word "in" taken from Strong's G1722 can also mean "by" and has been translated as "by" in other parts of Scripture.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/Lexicon/Lexicon.cfm?strongs=G1722&t=KJV
To put it to you another way, the rich-man said, I am tormented because of this flame (with English word "by" meaning "because" or "for the purpose of"). For G1722 can be used in reference to "for the purpose of" or as meaning "because".
Also, "in [g1722] the east" (Matthew 2:2) can be a location that is in front of us. In other words, I could say, "My eyes are tormented in (or by) the east." "For when I look eastward, the rising sun in the east hurts my light senstive eyes."
Cherry picking versions until you find one that agrees with your assumptions/presuppositions. The KJV, ASV, ISV, ESV, NET all say "in this flame." There is nothing about the context of Lk 16:24 which requires or even permits a translation of "by" instead of "in" for the Greek "en."Furthermore, the VOICE translation renders the heart of this verse more clearly for us,
"He shouted out, “Father Abraham! Please show me mercy! Would you send that beggar Lazarus to dip his fingertip in water and cool my tongue? These flames are hot, and I’m in agony." (Luke 16:24 VOICE).In other words, the verse is merely saying that the rich-man was tormented by the heat of some flames in hell somewhere and it doesn't mean he was actually in the flames....
This is a grammatical argument. Strong's is a concordance which defines Greek words. When I posted grammatical arguments about the original Greek you blew it off with this argument.
"When you show me that you have a time machine in your garage and that we can actually travel back into the past as proof that you really know Greek, I am not going to consider that you truly know what you are talking about at all. You can make educated guesses about a dead language based on what other people have guessed that language says, but that is not infallible proof that you are right in any way. I trust the language that I am familar with any given day of the week over what someone thinks Biblical Greek is saying."Do you have a time machine in your garage? If not then this post "is educated guesses about a dead language based on what other people have guessed that language says." Thus it does not merit consideration.
.....Your proof text Matthew 2:2 does not even come close to supporting your argument. The eastern kings said,"we have seen his star in the east, and are come to worship him." The kings were not anywhere close to the star "in the east."
.....In Luke 16:24 the rich man did not say "I have seen the fire."
Cherry picking versions until you find one that agrees with your assumptions/presuppositions. The KJV, ASV, ISV, ESV, NET all say "in this flame." There is nothing about the context of Lk 16:24 which requires or even permits a translation of "by" instead of "in" for the Greek "en."
I noticed you refused to answer any of the questions I presented about the concept of time length for punishment in hell....come to think of it, none of you all even try to answer the questions I am asking of your position...how interesting.
I merely used the Greek in this instance because that is all you appear to accept (in rejection of our own language). But even you do not read your Bible in Greek. You read it in English. In either case, until you can bring forth another example in Scripture for Luke 16:24 besides the false prophet and the antichrist (who are both demons) being thrown into the Lake of Fire, then we are at a standstill. For I see no other part of Scripture showing us clearly that people are tortured in flames within hell or the place of torment (that the richman went to).
In any event, may God's love shine upon you this fine day.
And please be well.
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wait a moment...I think we just found another misconception with scripture...hell is NOT the punishment or consequence or anything else for rejecting God...hell is the consequence for sin...accepting God is how to avoid hell...you apparently either have a different bible then I do or just haven't read the one you have very well. If someone were able to live without sin, they wouldn't need to be in hell or accept Jesus but as it is no man can do that which is why we need Jesus. You see, His blood paid the debt the law said is owed for sin.Well, I am not God to know the exact time frame of punishment. But eternity is overkill for the sin of a person in rejecting God. For it goes against fair justice. It is sadistic and totally unnecessary.
But I will ask again. Was there ever a time that ECT did bother you?
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All of the native Greek speaking early church fathers who refer to the story of Lazarus and the rich man considered it to be factual.I merely used the Greek in this instance because that is all you appear to accept (in rejection of our own language). But even you do not read your Bible in Greek. You read it in English. In either case, until you can bring forth another example in Scripture for Luke 16:24 besides the false prophet and the antichrist (who are both demons) being thrown into the Lake of Fire, then we are at a standstill. For I see no other part of Scripture showing us clearly that people are tortured in flames within hell or the place of torment (that the richman went to).
In any event, may God's love shine upon you this fine day.
And please be well.
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then your not the one the questions were directed at...just sayingRevelation 20:10..........
"And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever."
Revelation 20:13-15...
"And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works. And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death. And whosoever was not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire."
There is Satan, the A/C and false prophet and all those who rejected Christ being tormented day and night forever and ever.
That seems real clear to an old country boy like me.