Evergreen48
Senior Member
Der Alter said:]You have not proved your assertion that Luke 16:19-31 was pagan mythology or that Jesus used pagan mythology.
I believe I did. Sorry its too hard for you to comprehend.
I wonder why you did not quote paragraph 6.
6. For all men, the just as well as the unjust, shall be brought before God the word: for to him hath the Father committed all judgment : and he, in order to fulfill the will of his Father, shall come as Judge, whom we call Christ. For Minos and Rhadamanthus are not the judges, as you Greeks do suppose, but he whom God and the Father hath glorified: concerning whom we have elsewhere given a more particular account, for the sake of those who seek after truth. This person, exercising the righteous judgment of the Father towards all men, hath prepared a just sentence for every one, according to his works; at whose judgment-seat when all men, and angels, and demons shall stand, they will send forth one voice, and say, just is thy judgment; the rejoinder to which will bring a just sentence upon both parties, by giving justly to those that have done well an everlasting fruition; but allotting to the lovers of wicked works eternal punishment. To these belong the unquenchable fire, and that without end, and a certain fiery worm, never dying, and not destroying the body, but continuing its eruption out of the body with never-ceasing grief: neither will sleep give ease to these men, nor will the night afford them comfort; death will not free them from their punishment, nor will the interceding prayers of their kindred profit them; for the just are no longer seen by them, nor are they thought worthy of remembrance. ...
There was no reason to quote paragraph 6, and it would just have taken up space unnecessarily. I quoted enough and left the link for you to read the rest of the commentary for yourself.
Where is the part that is supposed to be copied by Christians?
What the Greeks may have believed is not relevant unless you can show specific things which were supposedly copied which cannot be supported from scripture. You have not done that yet.
I did not say anything was "copied by Christians". You said that. The whole description and concept of Hades is pagan. It does not have any scriptural foundation at all. But apparently you think it does, so please cite the scripture or scriptures that you think gives a description of Hades such as what is found in the Luke 16 passages. You can not. The only place any kind of description of Hades is found is in Greek myth.
I'd be very careful about throwing around insults such as "willingly ignorant" if I was you.
That was not meant as an insult. To be "willingly ignorant" of something simply means that one chooses to ignore something that they know is there.
Why did you think it was an insult?
I proved to you that you were quoting Job 24:20 out-of-context and that it does not say what you claim it does.
You did not prove anything.. Just saying that you proved it was out of context does not make it true.
You said in effect that the passages meant the grave would only consume the wicked and that it was those who would be remembered no more. Furthermore, you asserted that it was the living who would not remember them, and not God. My answer to that was that everyone is remembered by someone who is living when they die, and, in effect, I asked you if you were trying to say that it is only those of whom he spoke in the preceding passages that the grave would consume. (I assume you meant by "the wicked", those whose deeds were recorded in the preceding verses, if not then you will have to tell me who it was that your were referring to.)
"There is no consciousness of anyone after they are dead and in the grave?" In Isaiah 14 there is a long passage about the king of Babylon dying, and according to many the dead know nothing. They are supposedly annihilated, destroyed, gone! God, Himself, speaking, these dead people in שאול/sheol, know something, they move, meet the dead coming to sheol, stir up, raise up, speak and say, etc.
Isa 14:9-11 (KJV)
9) Hell [שאול] from beneath is moved for thee to meet thee at thy coming: it stirreth up the dead for thee, even all the chief ones of the earth; it hath raised up from their thrones all the kings of the nations.
10) All they shall speak and say unto thee, Art thou also become weak as we? art thou become like unto us?
11) Thy pomp is brought down to the grave, [שאול]/sheol] and the noise of thy viols: the worm is spread under thee, and the worms cover thee.[ . . .]
In the Septuagint Sheol is translated ᾅהחעhades.
22) For I will rise up against them, saith the LORD of hosts, and cut off from Babylon the name, and remnant, and son, and nephew, saith the LORD.
In this passage God, himself is speaking, and I see a whole lot of shaking going on, moving, rising up, and speaking in . These dead people seem to know something, about something. We know that verses 11 through 14 describe actual historical events, the death of Nebuchadnezzar, king of Babble-on.
Here is another passage where God himself is speaking and people who are dead in sheol, speaking, being ashamed, comforted, etc.
Ezek 32:18-22, 30-31 (KJV)
18) Son of man, [Ezekiel] wail for the multitude of Egypt, and cast them down, even her, and the daughters of the famous nations, unto the nether parts of the earth, with them that go down into the pit.
19) Whom dost thou pass in beauty? go down, and be thou laid with the uncircumcised.
20) They shall fall in the midst of them that are slain by the sword: she is delivered to the sword: draw her and all her multitudes.
21) The strong among the mighty shall speak to him out of the midst of hell [שאול] with them that help him: they are gone down, they lie uncircumcised, slain by the sword.
22) Asshur is there and all her company: his graves are about him: all of them slain, fallen by the sword::[ . . . ]
Eze 32:30-31
(30) There be the princes of the north, all of them, and all the Zidonians, which are gone down with the slain; with their terror they are ashamed of their might; and they lie uncircumcised with them that be slain by the sword, and bear their shame with them that go down to the pit.
(31) Pharaoh shall see them, and shall be comforted over all his multitude, even Pharaoh and all his army slain by the sword, saith the Lord GOD.
Both Isaiah and Ezekiel were prophets. Therefore they wrote in a prophetic language. How about in the preceding chapter (13) where he says concerning the 'day of the Lord' in the destruction of Babylon by the Medes and the Persians: 7. "Therefore shall all hands be faint, and every man's heart shall melt:"
Do you think that the prophet meant that hands would literally be "faint" and that "every man's heart would literally melt" ?
8. "And they shall be afraid: pangs and sorrows shall take hold of them; they shall be in pain as a woman that travaileth: they shall be amazed one at another; their faces shall be as flames.
9. Behold, the day of the LORD cometh, cruel both with wrath and fierce anger, to lay the land desolate: and he shall destroy the sinners thereof out of it.
10. For the stars of heaven and the constellations thereof shall not give their light: the sun shall be darkened in his going forth, and the moon shall not cause her light to shine."
Do you believe that the stars and the constellations literally did not give their light, and that the sun was literally darkened preceding the destruction of Babylon?
Isa. 55:12. "For ye shall go out with joy, and be led forth with peace: the mountains and the hills shall break forth before you into singing, and all the trees of the field shall clap their hands."
Hills and mountains do not literally sing, and trees do not clap their hands. (mostly because they don't have hands to clap with)
So, your brave attempt at proving that there is consciousness after death for the 'unsaved' is fruitless.
So nothing but your own unsupported opinion. How much more of the NT do you throw out because it doesn't line up with your opinion?
An opinion does not have to be supported by anything other than the reasoning of the person who opines. You may take it or leave it. I repeat: NO WHERE IS IT FOUND THAT JESUS SAID THE WORDS IN THE PARABLE OF THE RICH MAN AND LAZARUZ. I know you don't like the fact that it is not said that Jesus said this, but never the less it is true. So deal with it and move on, and stop repeating yourself.
Evergreen48 said:Nothing wrong with using such to enhance your understanding of koiné Greek. One does not have to agree with the commentator to take advantage of the 'historical linguistics' involved in their works.Der Alter said:Interesting concept pick and choose what is/is not correct based on your own unsupported opinion
Your reply makes no sense at all.
How utterly ridiculous is this. The church which was located at Rome did not have any more authority than any other church. The churches at Jerusalem, ALexandria, etc. were also catholic that is κατά ὅλος/kata holos, according to the whole. It was not until 1075 when Gregory VII unilaterally usurped authority that anything resembling the RCC came into existence.
No one said the church at Rome did have any more authority than any other church. There was a church at Rome in 1075, and it was Catholic, and it did have a Pope (also called a Bishop) who was in authority over it.
2000 thousand years +/- of church history. What do you have?
Intelligent reasoning of my own.
Der Alter said:]I would not care to speculate on this unless I can read the entire thing in context.
See the following commentary.
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