I see. So, you just give some a complete "pass" on the mandate (a rather all-embracing one, I'm sure you'll agree).
I feared so. Because as I so stressed in my first post on this issue, I'm STRONGLY desirous of embracing your position. It "fits" very well with my theology. I WANT to agree with you. But there IS that very strong verse. IMO, we can't just totally ignore it. And it seems, that's exactly what you do. I find it unacceptable to teach in direct contradiction of Scripture - and saying, "but just ignore the Scriptures" doesn't quite work FOR ME - especially when i it is SO clear, SO clearly linked to something so important. That the EO can just ignore such a clear verse troubles me - but nonetheless, I don't question your heart or faith.
I asked my question because I WANT - powerfully - to agree with your position. After a lot of rabbit holes, we got to the final point: Such requires ignoring a very powerful, very clear, very obvious Scripture. I think I NEED to stick with some position that doesn't require and do that.
There is no such mandate for Baptism, no such Scriptural mandate I must ignore in order to embrace my theology and practice there.
Quote me where I said that one must have faith before being Baptized? Quote me where I said that one must have faith before communing? What Paul says is that each PERSON (anthropoi - homo sapiens) must EXAMINE himself and THEN eat of bread and drink of the cup. It seems you are just ignoring that.
Okay. I think I've got it. I AM disappointed and sad. And I think, unfortunately, the Western church is right on this one as much as I didn't want it to be.
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I'm not accusing you of saying one has to have faith before being baptized, but I am saying that you're being inconsistent by saying one must "examine themselves" before communion, but they don't need to have a profession of faith before baptism. I guess I find it contradictory how one could agree with the premise of infant baptism, yet disagree with infant communion. To me it only makes logical sense to either entirely agree with both or entirely disagree.
Many people say that there are biblical "mandates" regarding baptism and one's profession of faith beforehand, as in the article below:
What does the Bible say about infant baptism?
yet you clearly disagree with these people, that faith or a profession of faith is necessary to receive the sacrament of baptism, although seemingly, there are verses which could be used in such a way as to make a case for the necessity of all people (including babies) to believe or repent before baptism, such as the one below:
And Peter said to them, “Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.
So then, let's use the same line of thinking. Now this definitely sounds like a mandate to me. In fact, it is even in the imperative. Repent and be baptized. So then, how is a baby, and infant, able to repent? Turn from their ways? Can you explain to me how a infant, is able to repent? If you cannot, then tell me why you embrace infant baptism, which "apparently" contradicts this biblical "mandate" above?
It appears to me at least that your only way out here would be to say that a baby isn't require to repent (Unless you say the parents repent for them?) Again, you're in the same boat here which you are accusing us of being in. Either way you slice it, you're going to have to grant an exception to children here to uphold your belief in infant baptism.
I only bring this up because it relates with the topic at hand, as I'm trying to understand your train of thought here and draw a parallel. I don't think it is worth starting its own thread, but if you want to, we can.