(John 8:56) Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw [it], and was glad.(John 8:57) Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?(John 8:58) Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I AM.
Jesus proclaims that
He KNEW ABRAHAM. There is no way to deny that Jesus
existed before becoming Human. Now you ask, "what did 'I AM' mean?" According to the Jews,
He was calling Himself, GOD. In verse 59,
they picked up stones to KILL Him---there is no way to deny that the Jews,
who heard the ENTIRE conversation (we're getting it second-hand, and as John laments,
"many other words of Jesus were NOT included, for the World itself could not contain all that He said." Jn21:25---no way to deny that the JEWS thought He was calling Himself, GOD.
Likewise, in John10:30, some try to contend that He meant "the Father and I are ONE IN PURPOSE" (or one in INTENT, etc.)---rather than "one in ESSENCE". But the JEWS had no trouble understanding what Jesus MEANT---as they clearly say, "YOU
make Yourself out to be GOD!!!" (33) Faced with this accusation, admitting to His godhood would have earned Him an instant stoning---or rather, an ATTEMPT; in chapter 8 Jesus
went INVISIBLE, as in POOFED! "Jesus WAS HIDDEN FROM THEM, and passing THROUGH THEIR MIDST went out of the temple..."
So in 10:34, Jesus was PLAYING with them. Pure sarcasm, by quoting Psalm 82---which was ALSO sarcasm!
"How much longer will you judge unjustly and favor the wicked? YOU think you are gods, but I SAY you will DIE LIKE MEN..." In pulling the Scripture out as He did, Jesus
confused them, and kept them from stoning Him. Actually, they TRIED AGAIN to SEIZE Him, but He did another "supernatural stunt" and "eluded their grasp"...
Now I've known people to say... "the Word was God, and Jesus was the Word in the flesh, so he was God in the flesh." But John never makes this clear conclusion in his writings so how can we add it ourselves?
In Jn1, "The word flesh-became, and tabernacled among us." Only JESUS did that. Verse 15 says "John bore witness saying, 'He who comes after me is BEFORE me (higher than)' "---this is unmistakably simply repeating Matt3:11: "He who comes after me is MIGHTIER than I, and I am not fit to remove His sandals." This too was referring to Jesus---"I baptize you with water, but Jesus baptizes with Holy Spirit (for believers) and fire (Hell for sinners)."
4) Why would Jesus hide this fact from His disciples?
It was not hidden, but spiritually revealed. See Matt16:16.
Establishing that Jesus
is a separate person from the Father does not deny His GODHOOD; we (believers in the Trinity) also understand that. But we understand that three PERSONS, separate and distinct, capable of talking to each other---together comprise one GOD.
Jesus had no beginning, existed before birth, before Abraham,
before the world. Jehovah's Witnesses confuse "firstborn of all creation" (Col1) as BORN-FIRST---but it is only "RANK, PRE-EMINENCE" (authority). Same chapter, "firstborn from the dead"---authority even over death.
All those verses I gave you before---in Matt4:10 Jesus
acknowledges that ony GOD shall be worshipped---so when HE accepted worship, either He was BLASPHEMING or He
knew He was God.
In John14 Jesus says, "Why do you wanna see the Father? Do you not know that I am in the Father and the Father is in ME? If you have seen ME,
you have SEEN THE FATHER!" Conveying His equality with God, boldly. Similarly in John 6, they were saying, "Is this not JESUS, whose father and mother we know?" (as in: "we saw Him grow UP, who does He think He IS?!") Jesus was conveying, "I am FROM the Father (IE Messiah), all that come to the Father, He gives to ME." Trying to explain that
salvation is through HIMSELF.
Jesus said, "I will lift them up". Speaking of believers, to eternal life. Expressing His godly authority
in bestowing eternal life to believers. Not "GOD will raise believers", but
"I MYSELF will raise believers".
This answer your questions better???