Limited Atonement
Some Calvinists have shared with me that Christ did not shed his blood for all mankind, but only for those 'predestined' for heaven.
IOW, they maintain that all those scriptures which say "all" men actually mean "many" (and we argued extensively abt the meaning of 'all' vs 'many'!).
They also reasoned that it was "ridiculous" or "beneath" Jesus (sort of like a 'waste' of his blood) to shed his blood for those who would end up in hell.
My question: Dont Calvinist believe that ALL men have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God, no thanks to Adam? So if they do, then how can the last Adam's work be a much more compared to the first Adam's (as stated in Rom 5) when the former's work affected all mankind whereas Jesus' work affects only an elect group? ie If sin affects all, but grace was shed only for some, how can Jesus work be a "much more" than Adam's sinning and its effects
in relation to this:
Ro 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
Why do Calvinist (the ones I've talked to) interpret "all" in the first instance to mean "all" but in the same breath/verse interpret "all" in the second instance to mean "many". where is the consistency in interpretation?
Some Calvinists have shared with me that Christ did not shed his blood for all mankind, but only for those 'predestined' for heaven.
IOW, they maintain that all those scriptures which say "all" men actually mean "many" (and we argued extensively abt the meaning of 'all' vs 'many'!).
They also reasoned that it was "ridiculous" or "beneath" Jesus (sort of like a 'waste' of his blood) to shed his blood for those who would end up in hell.
My question: Dont Calvinist believe that ALL men have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God, no thanks to Adam? So if they do, then how can the last Adam's work be a much more compared to the first Adam's (as stated in Rom 5) when the former's work affected all mankind whereas Jesus' work affects only an elect group? ie If sin affects all, but grace was shed only for some, how can Jesus work be a "much more" than Adam's sinning and its effects
in relation to this:
Ro 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
Why do Calvinist (the ones I've talked to) interpret "all" in the first instance to mean "all" but in the same breath/verse interpret "all" in the second instance to mean "many". where is the consistency in interpretation?