In other words according your belief-
Not just my belief but that of mainstream Christianity. That’s the reason why this topic is relegated to controversial theology on this site.
"some to eternal life but the wicked to eternal life in hell"
Yep. That’s what scripture teach.
Even though not one verse when talking about eternal life contrasts it with eternal life in hell. It's always contrasted with perishing or death.
Really? Shall we start with the obvious one?
Matt. 25:46
“These will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.””
Matthew 25:46 NASB2020
These will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”
bible.com
And yes, aionios does mean eternal and no, nothing about death in this verse.
Please don’t use the old, tired argument that death is eternal punishment.
Christ states -Revelation 20:14 "And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death."
Yep. And?
Revelation 20:15 "And whosoever was not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire."
Yep. And?
Revelation 21:1 "And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.
Revelation 21:4 "And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away."
Revelation 21:7 "He that overcometh shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he shall be my son."
Revelation 21:8 "But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death."
Yep. And yet, the wicked are still alive in Rev. 22:15 so your definition of death does not work.
Here is the actual definition.
Strong’s Definitions
θάνατος thánatos, than'-at-os; from
G2348; (properly, an adjective used as a noun) death (literally or figuratively):—X deadly, (be…) death.
KJV Translation Count — Total: 119x
The KJV translates Strong's G2288 in the following manner:
death (117x),
deadly (2x).
Outline of Biblical Usage
- the death of the body
- that separation (whether natural or violent) of the soul and the body by which the life on earth is ended
- with the implied idea of future misery in hell
- the power of death
- since the nether world, the abode of the dead, was conceived as being very dark, it is equivalent to the region of thickest darkness i.e. figuratively, a region enveloped in the darkness of ignorance and sin
- metaph., the loss of that life which alone is worthy of the name,
- the misery of the soul arising from sin, which begins on earth but lasts and increases after the death of the body in hell
- the miserable state of the wicked dead in hell
- in the widest sense, death comprising all the miseries arising from sin, as well physical death as the loss of a life consecrated to God and blessed in him on earth, to be followed by wretchedness in hell
The problem is assigning only the definition that seems to help your doctrine but all you are doing is ignoring linguistic context so error usually follows.
Well, a deeper study on which manuscripts to believe in is sometimes in order. There are discussions on which Greek word is the correct one in this case.
I like the KJV just for the fact that every word at least can be translated back. Sure there's some mistakes in the KJV (Easter, etc) but not every translation is perfect. But at least I can take a verse with the word "taken" for example -if I take it back to the Greek we come up with multiple Greek words for just that one word. And with multiple meanings as they are being utilized in certain verses. I don't think the new versions can do that. But correct me if that's the case. But I believe given the context in verse 11 the word ἐντολή entole is correct one.
Revelation 22:11 "He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still: and he that is righteous, let him be righteous still: and he that is holy, let him be holy still."
Is that not a commandment to us? I believe so.
It could be. I think the “filthy” analogy backs up the “clean robes” but at the end of the day the message is not distorted.
I know we will most likely not change each other's minds at this point...
That’s up to you.