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childeye 2

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Most choices don't involve deliberation, they're made in the moment. Reasoning can assist in long-range decisionss, but is not the same as the ability to choose in and of itself.
Okay but, this statement does not affirm the will as a desire in scripture.
The relevance still eludes me.
Do you see the following statement as inferring there is a choice to do otherwise, or inferring that the children of the devil can only do what their father does? --> Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do.
Seems like you're importing a framework that isn't there. The life-or-death choice is a covenental one, which while morality plays into it is not strictly moral. Nor are typical choices as black and white as choosing to follow God or choosing to go after the gods of the nations.
The op uses Deuteronomy 30:19 to support the claim that to live or die is being presented as a voluntary decision. This is not a typical choice, so let's concentrate on the subject matter of the op.
Dancing around the issue doesn't address it.
I'm addressing it according to what Jesus said. We will be judged according to what measure we use to judge others. That means to me that I will be judged blameworthy by the same measure I used to find others blameworthy. That's why it's not a simple yes or no answer.
You pushing DBT now?
What is DBT?
 
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Fervent

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Okay but, this statement does not affirm the will as a desire in scripture.
The ins and outs of the free will vs determinism question is not explicit in Scripture, and any inference in either direction is likely being read into the text rather than dealing with what is in the text
Do you see the following statement as inferring there is a choice to do otherwise, or inferring that the children of the devil can only do what their father does? --> Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do.
Did you hurt your back when you made that reach?
The op uses Deuteronomy 30:19 to support the claim that to live or die is being presented as a voluntary decision. This is not a typical choice, so let's concentrate on the subject matter of the o
It is a demonstration of "ought implies can", there's no need to treat it as a special case.
I'm addressing it according to what Jesus said. We will be judged according to what measure we use to judge others. That means to me that I wil be judged blameworthy by the same measure I used to find others blameworthy.
No comment.
What is DBT?
Dialectical Behavioral Therapy, it's main idea is that two conflicting ideas be held at the same time.
 
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childeye 2

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The ins and outs of the free will vs determinism question is not explicit in Scripture, and any inference in either direction is likely being read into the text rather than dealing with what is in the text
I try to be a pragmatist. Scripture says we were made in the image of God. To know Who that Image is, is to know thyself. It is the purpose for the Scriptures that we should know God.

Objectively God IS that He IS. Scripture conveys that there is a subjective corruptible image of god in the world which keeps people in darkness. According to the Gospel, it can be discerned as an ignorance of the True Image of God who would suffer a cross of torture, betrayal, and shame, and yet in all sincerity would forgive his crucifiers saying they know not what they do. Again, we were made in God's Image, and we need a pure Image of HE Who IS to believe in (trust in) and conform to, in Character.

The Creator precedes the Creation. <-- As a theist, I would point out that this is an explicit example of determinism in one direction, and there is nothing to read into it. Admitting there is a source of the energy that formed all things, is the first precept of theism and the very sentiment of what the term Father means to every child of God.

Did you hurt your back when you made that reach?
It's the Gospel and the Word Christ Jesus speaking. Jesus is declaring there is an alternate father who is the father of lies. I think it's necessary to contemplate when the circumstance of freedom to choose is a choice between believing what is true and of God and what is a lie posing as the truth.
It is a demonstration of "ought implies can", there's no need to treat it as a special case.
It still doesn't imply voluntary.

Romans 8:3
For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
Dialectical Behavioral Therapy, it's main idea is that two conflicting ideas be held at the same time.
According to the description it sounds like cognitive dissonance, which isn't good. That doesn't sound like what I'm doing.
 
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CoreyD

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I found this online --> How does Adam obey God and cleave to his wife as one flesh, and yet also obey God and not eat of the fruit?


First understand that when I say -->childeye 2 said:
The scripture does not indicate in any terminology that Adam experienced any such desire/want , I am referring to 1 Timothy 2:14.
Can I ask... Does a person that wants to take money from the bank illegally, want to break the law?
Do there do so willingly? Would you argue that they don't want to break the law?

I'm not disputing any of this --> Genesis 2:16 The Lord God commanded the man, saying, “From any tree of the garden you may freely eat; 17 but from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat... Premise 1: God commanded the man not to eat from the tree of knowledge of good and evil.
Genesis 3:6 ...[Eve] took some of its fruit and ate; and she also gave some to her husband with her, and he ate. Premise 2: Adam ate fruit from the tree of knowledge of good and evil.
---------
I'm pointing out why in 1 Timothy 2:14 Paul is not conveying any sentiment that Adam wanted to disobey God <-- This is what I'm trying to get you to understand.
Thanks for clarifying.
If you agree that while not deceived, Adam ate of the fruit of the tree, which God commanded him not to eat.
Then you must also agree that Adam willfully disobeyed God.

What you appear to be saying is that Adam did not want to disobey God, but willfully did.
However, since Adam was not deceived, as the Bible says, then it's a contradiction to say Adam did not want to disobey God, since Adam's choice was made with the knowledge that what he was doing was wrong against God, and so he ate the fruit, knowing full well that this was the truth.
Hence Adam willfully chose to disobey God, following the course he wanted to take.

I'm not saying he did or that he didn't know what he was doing. I don't want to lie and claim I know.
Please see above.
Adam knew what he was doing. He was not deceived.
Please review the meaning of deceived if you are still uncertain.

For all I know Adam could've believed that Eve had entered into mortality after eating, and he decided that he didn't want to live without her, so he ate too. I don't know.
That is extreme speculation.
We do not want to add these to this discussion.

For all I know, upon finding out she had eaten, Adam was expecting her to immediately show signs of dying. But when he didn't see any, he may have wondered if He had misunderstood God, so he ate to see if the woman was correct about the fruit being good as pertains to knowledge.
This too, is extreme speculation.
Please, let us not get into these unverifiable guesses.

The point is the scriptures do not provide details about Adam's intentions according to the description of how the events unfolded; I do know that I'm looking at two male/female images of God in two innocent souls, unaware of this knowledge of good or evil. Since I'm left projecting, then whatever I think and believe and ultimately say about them, will say more about me than it will about them. I do not want to project wickedness onto them with the neutral phrase "free will" being used as a vehicle for the negative sentiment of willful disobedience.

Having said that, I think it's possible Adam didn't know what he was doing as pertains to the full consequences of believing the woman over God. And it's also possible he knew what he was doing.

This is how it's possible. --> Given that Eve was beguiled into eating, if I were to ask Eve if she would do the same thing again knowing what she knows now, I am fairly certain she would say NO. So, I could assume If I asked the same question of Adam he might also say no too. If Adam did say no, he would not make the same decision, then it could be said he didn't know what he was doing. But if he chose to cleave to his wife, He might say he would do it again. And if he said that, then it could be said that Adam knew what he was doing.
Again. We would agree you are speculating.
Did Adam know what he was doing?
A willful act refers to an intentional, conscious, and deliberate action carried out with the purpose of achieving a specific result. It is characterized by a voluntary and knowing decision to perform an act or omission that one is aware is prohibited by law or contrary to duty.
Sources 1 2

Deceived :
To be deceived means to be caused to believe something that is not true, often through deliberate misrepresentation, lies, or misleading actions. It involves being misled or tricked, either by someone else's deceitful behavior or by one's own failure to recognize the truth. This can include being misled about facts, being manipulated into a false belief
Sources 1 2 3 4 5

According to the Bible, and secular sources, Adam was not deceived, but knew what he was doing.

I'm saying that the scripture describes a scenario where Adam is in the circumstance of being forced to choose between who to believe, God or the woman.
Where did you read that in the Bible? Can we agree, nowhere?
If it comes from in your head, it's an idea, and we are not considering ideas, are we.

Let the Bible have the say.
Adam was not forced, but yes, he had a choice, between whether he would obey God, or not.
Adam chose to eat of the fruit God specifically told him not to eat, according to the Genesis account. Thus Adam disobeyed God. Not because he was deceived. Genesis 3:6; Romans 5:18; 1 Timothy 2:14

Assuming that Adam could have eaten of the fruit at any time of his own initiative if he wanted to, the impression is that Adam was believing God that he would die or begin dying if he ate. That would imply he did not deliberately or willingly eat the fruit.
Pardon me?
Please explain how the fact that Adan did not eat the fruit, prior, impress on your mind that Adam did not deliberately or willingly eat the fruit. :!?:

of one's own accord​

idiom

—used to indicate that someone does something because he or she wants to, not because someone has asked the person or forced him or her to do it

of one's own accord​

idiom
/ʌv wʌnz oʊn əˈkɔrd/

Acting willingly and voluntarily, without external influence.
  • She decided to leave the party of her own accord.

Etymology​

PIE word
*ḱérd
From accord (“spontaneous or voluntary impulse to act”).

Prepositional phrase​

of one's own accord

  1. On one's (or its) own initiative; under one's (or its) own power, without being commanded or controlled.
----------------------
Scripture indicates that Adam Hearkened to the woman, which means to me Adam was 'persuaded' to eat. If I am correct, that would not qualify as eating of his own accord/initiative. If he desired to cleave to the woman as God had said he should, then I suppose it could be considered as eating of his own accord, but it still looks forced to me due to prior causes.
Could Adam have obeyed God of his own accord?
Please answer the question yes or no, if that is not difficult for you. Thanks.
 
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CoreyD

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You have not even given a coherent definition of what this free will is that you're referring to.
I didn't?
Perhaps you are trying to redefine free will, and therefore, in your mind, the true meaning is not coherent.

What does the evidence show?
From post #1.
...let's start with John 8:44
Starting with God's heavenly children - the spirit creation, called angels, the Bible says of the one called Devil and Satan... When he lies, he speaks out of his own character. That is... pertaining to self, or of his own.​
Jesus thus makes clear that the angel that became Satan the Devil, acts according to his own will, or desire.​
Jesus further states in the same verse, John 8:44... "your will is to do your father’s desires".
Humans too, have their own will, which is in opposition to the father.​
this was a deliberate opposing of the truth. Hence, the name Satan.​
So, sin cannot be claimed as a hinderance to free will. Nor can it be claimed that they have to give in to wrong desires.
The angels make their own decisions to do what the want. Genesis 6:2
Proof that the angels - God's heavenly children, do have free will.​
Regarding humans, the same apply.
In saying that their will is to do Satan's desire, what was Jesus pointing out? They were acting on their own will. Not anyone else's.
That humans have free will is made clear in other scriptures.
The Bible says Adam was not deceived.
Thus Adam acted on his own free will.​
Adam and Eve were free willed agents... not driven by sin, but making free willed decisions.
Proof that humans... God's earthly children were created with free will.
Did sin somehow cancel out free will.
In the imagination of many, that is the case.
However, the Bible does not say that after sin came into the world through one man, that free will became obsolete.
Rather, the scriptures refer to man's free will, repeatedly.
The Greek word hekousios - meaning free will, is the neuter of a derivative from hekon; voluntariness -- willingly, which is (an adjective, a primitive term) – properly, willing; "unforced, of one's own will, voluntary" (J. Thayer), i.e. acting on one's own accord. The root (hek-) emphasizes intentional, deliberate action (choice), i.e. "of free-will" (J. Thayer).​

I don't know what you find incoherent about that. It's pretty clear, what free will is, from there.
However, I can walk you through even further.
Post #3
...free will is defined as...
The philosophical definition is varied, as well as extreme in some cases.
Free will does not mean having the ability to fly, walk through walls, change from human to deity, or remove sin.
These pertain to abilities that do not involve making moral decisions.
In fact, yes, we can make moral decisions, despite being sinners.​
For example, Enoch is said to have "pleased God", because he chose to walk with God. Hebrews 11:5
Other too, chose to do what is right, in the face of death.
This is what free will involves.
It's not whether we are sinful, sinless, or black or white.
This is clear, as well, and even says what free will does not involve.
How do you find this incoherent?

Starting from post #69, I pointed out that you were "off base" regarding what was said, and the definition given.
Post #83 didn't help you to adjust.
Then from there, the thread sort of swung away from the topic, to some degree.
Let's see if we can work with anything here.

Exactly.

I disagree with any assertion that Adam and Eve were corrupt when in a state of innocence.
Can you please define your terms corrupt and in a state of innocence, and elaborate on them. Thanks.
Also, is having a free moral choice "innocence"? Is choosing one over the other, which may be wrong, "corrupt"?

Exactly, Jesus has no will with the capacity to desire to disobey God.


If the free will you're describing is imperfect, but on its way towards perfection, this would be done by the Holy Spirit of Truth, and Truth is a revelation.
Imperfect to whom.
Why can't free will be perfect in relation to God, and why can free will not be exercised without holy spirit?
Why is holy spirit needed for one to make a free willed decision, either, or?

Note below that this would not qualify as a free will (noun) in the dictionary.

free will
2 of 2

noun

1
: voluntary choice or decision
I do this of my own free will


2
: freedom of humans to make choices that are not determined by prior causes or by divine intervention
I don't believe Jesus has the same free will that has the capacity to want to disobey God. In my psycholinguistics,

I don't count the capacity to disobey God as freedom.
It's not true freedom, I can agree, but the ability to choose true freedom or not, is still a choice we are freely given.
God did make his intelligent creatures capable of disobeying him, did he not?
Are you saying, you don't think Adam and Eve had freedom?

Jesus does not have this so called free will which is an equivocation of freedom to sin and to not sin. That's' called doublemindedness. Certainly, God doesn't either.
Are you saying Jesus does not choose to to God's will.... that he has no choice?

I don't accept the assertion that Adam and Eve did not want to do the will of God. The contrast I articulate is that there are powers of Light and darkness that indicate the knowledge and ignorance of God's Person. A corrupt image of god's person, formed out of ignorance/darkness, would therefore corrupt the soul.
Okay wait a minute. The Holy Spirit testifies to the Character of God and the son. It's a revelation and therefore has nothing to do with the will of any man or angel choosing. Note that Psalm 73:28 is talking about drawing close through faith which is dependent upon a trustworthy image of God. We don't choose to have faith; Faith comes by hearing and hearing comes by the Word of God.
Does one choose whether or not to listen to God?

This is all confusing.

I note that the statement that the free will you are describing allows one to choose to go against sinful desires, or with sinful desires. It is therefore doublemindedness. It is also predicated on the existence of sinful desires that in turn are based on lies and vain imaginings. This is the problem I have with the term. I do not want to cloak doublemindedness with the sentiment of freedom. We can qualify this free will as free from singlemindedness.
Were Adam and Eve sinful, before disobeying God?
Why then are you referring to "free will you are describing allows one to choose to go against sinful desires, or with sinful desires."?
 
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CoreyD

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There is a way we draw close to God the Light and there is a way into the darkness. Only One Light and two directions, One towards that True Light and one away into the darkness, or in the case of a false image of god, a false light.

While in our daily lives, moment by moment we are making 'decisions', some are unforced, and some are forced. But in the moral/immoral context where spiritual powers of Light/and darkness are at war in the soul, there exists a blindness and therefore the very condition necessary for a revelation of the truth, and this revelation is not a choice/decision on our part as a creature that can choose. Since scriptures teach that one's 'desires' and actions are determined by either having the character of the devil or of God, and since the Holy Spirit is the One Who testifies to God in our hearts, it's not of our own initiative that mankind is given sight, nor our will/desire transformed of our own accord. It's not of my power of will that I conform to Christ, just because the option exists to go the other way.
You are saying, then, that all humans are driven either by God's spirit, or Satan's, and when a person chooses to do wrong, or right, it is not a choice made of his own will. Is that correct?

I assume it's your view that the people Paul refers to at Romans 2:14, 15, are driven by God's spirit? Would that assumption be correct?

Scripture indicates they knew after eating the fruit. --> 7 And the eyes of them both were opened, and they knew that they were naked; and they sewed fig leaves together, and made themselves aprons.
Are you then saying Adam and Eve could not see?
Does this adjust your earlier response?
childeye 2 said:
No. I don't think they were blind. The way I interpret it is I think they found no fault in being naked before they ate and then found fault in being naked after they ate.

I think their eyes being opened implies a realization. I think their feeling ashamed and wanting to cover their privates implies a carnal vanity.​
 
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CoreyD

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That's not a fair analogy. The scriptures teach that there are children of God and children of the devil. It would be misleading to alter that depiction, and Jesus would not want us to be misled.
Can a child of the Devil make a choice to follow God?
If so, when and how does that happen?

In John 8:44 Jesus is not expressing any sentiment conveying that God gave the devil the ability to lie.
I'm not following you here.
Are you contending that the angel that sinned, did so, of his own?

God told them not to eat, so the sentiment runs counter to God wanting us to decide for ourselves what is right and wrong. While we may assume that God doesn't want His children to be ignorant of right and wrong, that still deviates from the Gospel that God's Spirit is what is needed to do what is right. That would explain why God didn't want Adam and Eve to think in those terms, wherein they are thinking that they decide and choose to be good or evil.
When did Adam lose God's spirit... (He ate the forbidden fruit. He did wrong)?

If you hadn't loaded the question with the premise she had "her freedom of choice" I could answer. So, I'm going to say she did not have the knowledge or wisdom to understand that she was being manipulated.
My apologies.
Did the woman have a choice in the matter, and could she exercise freedom of choice., or did she have none?

It means whenever any description of being capable of not doing what God says is described as a freedom, it would be a false freedom and therefore a false description.

I mean this -->
28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;

29 Being filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, debate, deceit, malignity; whisperers,

30 Backbiters, haters of God, despiteful, proud, boasters, inventors of evil things, disobedient to parents,

31 Without understanding, covenantbreakers, without natural affection, implacable, unmerciful:

32 Who knowing the judgment of God, that they which commit such things are worthy of death, not only do the same, but have pleasure in them that do them.
Thank you.
So man does what is in his mind to do, which God give him up to - his own will.
You accept this scripture, but don't understand that it's saying exactly that.

Perhaps read it again, and start from verse
21 For even though they knew God, they did not [o]honor Him as God or give thanks, but they became futile in their reasonings, and their senseless hearts were darkened. 22 Claiming to be wise, they became fools, 23 and they exchanged the glory of the incorruptible God for an image in the form of corruptible mankind, of birds, four-footed animals, and [p]crawling creatures.
24 Therefore God gave them up...
 
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CoreyD

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The op uses Deuteronomy 30:19 to support the claim that to live or die is being presented as a voluntary decision. This is not a typical choice, so let's concentrate on the subject matter of the op.
No. The OP does not claim that. That was your claim.
To verify that, please see this post, as well as this one.

Your words exactly, were...
God says choose life which means to me that He doesn't want the people He's talking to, to choose to die. The choice/decision is therefore not voluntary because one MUST choose to live or die.
Choose Life is said after presenting the option to live or die. If I were there I would take it to mean God wants me to live and subsequently he instructs me to do these things to live and not be cursed. Since I don't will/desire to die or be cursed, I'd need to listen to His instruction.

You took the voluntary choice away, by claiming you are forced to do X, as to you, there is no other option.
The OP does not promote your ideology based on how you read.
The choice is between loving God, listening to him, and obeying him... or not.
In that way, they choose either life or death.

To love someone, or not is voluntary... a free choice.
So, is the choice to listen and obey... or not.
Do you agree, or disagree?
 
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stevevw

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The reality of free will sounds like there is some realness, fact or truth about it. Even this is a non verifiable claim. Just like those who say there is no free will.

Sometimes I think the very idea of free will is an idea that stems from a a non belief in God into a belief in whatever it is that has no God or gods that would ultimately judge us.

Because then all human made ideas about judgement and morals and all that are relative. So in some ways fundementally, right at the bottom underneath all the rationalisations this comes down to a belief. One with God and one without where everything is naturalistic and social construction.

Is not the idea of no free will is because we are subject to all sorts of forces, biases and influences based on the material processes. Even religious belief is an evolutionary by product and not real. We made up the gods as a coping mechanism lol.

But outside this limited worldview it seems our lived experiences and reality is that Free Will is real. As real as the chair we are sitting on as far as belief in it. Its just you can't put free will in a test tube.

I would say our lived reality is a reality. The proof is in the pudding so to speak and theres no arguement against it. Because we act like there is free will and we are not fools or are deluded lol. Its real and we don't need all the rationalisation. We just get on with it and live as if free will is as real and the phyical world.
 
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CoreyD

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The reality of free will sounds like there is some realness, fact or truth about it. Even this is a non verifiable claim. Just like those who say there is no free will.

Sometimes I think the very idea of free will is an idea that stems from a a non belief in God into a belief in whatever it is that has no God or gods that would ultimately judge us.

Because then all human made ideas about judgement and morals and all that are relative. So in some ways fundementally, right at the bottom underneath all the rationalisations this comes down to a belief. One with God and one without where everything is naturalistic and social construction.

Is not the idea of no free will is because we are subject to all sorts of forces, biases and influences based on the material processes. Even religious belief is an evolutionary by product and not real. We made up the gods as a coping mechanism lol.

But outside this limited worldview it seems our lived experiences and reality is that Free Will is real. As real as the chair we are sitting on as far as belief in it. Its just you can't put free will in a test tube.

I would say our lived reality is a reality. The proof is in the pudding so to speak and theres no arguement against it. Because we act like there is free will and we are not fools or are deluded lol. Its real and we don't need all the rationalisation. We just get on with it and live as if free will is as real and the phyical world.
The view of most people, is that free will is a philosophy.
Free will is a philosophical concept that refers to the ability of individuals to make choices and take actions without being coerced, especially when multiple options are available.

If it were that the Bible did not exist, then we could not argue that any concept is philosophical.
However, the Bible uses terms, we can understand, and gather their meaning.

The first use of the term persons accept as being "free will" is found at Hosea 14:4.
The Hebrew word is nedabah, which comes from the Hebrew word nadab, of which Topical Lexicon says...
The verb נָדַב consistently underlines a movement of the heart that is neither coerced nor merely dutiful. It describes people stirred from within to give, serve, or step forward because they have first been moved by God. Throughout Scripture this spirit of readiness is linked to worship, stewardship, civic responsibility, and warfare, revealing a multifaceted biblical theology of voluntary devotion.

This willingness is seen at Exodus 25:2 every man whose heart prompts him; and Exodus 35:21 Everyone whose heart stirred him and everyone whose spirit prompted him.
Thus, the term freewill was derived, since nedabah involves an action that is both willing and voluntary, done freely - of one's own accord... one's free will.

The term free will is therefore not philosophical, but theological.
Exercising free will first started with God, and as humans are made in God's image, they too have this God given attribute, as can be seen in the scriptures where God allows persons to give him worship of their own accord, or of their own free will.

In other words, God gave humans the opportunity to make a personal choice regarding their course in life.
Hence, Deuteronomy 30:19, 20

The argument that humans are not free, whether such arguments come from philosophers or those debating on this thread, have been shown to be baseless.
The Bible even dismisses these arguments in one statement.
Live in freedom, but do not use your freedom as a cover-up for evil; live as servants of God. 1 Peter 2:16

So, the cry that we have no freedom, is not true, scripturally.
 
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childeye 2

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Can I ask... Does a person that wants to take money from the bank illegally, want to break the law?
Do there do so willingly? Would you argue that they don't want to break the law?
If you mean to describe the act of stealing from a bank, I will acknowledge the act denotes a person who wants money and is willing to break the law to get it. I would not think they want to break the law, but rather they wanted the money and breaking the law was a means to that end.
Thanks for clarifying.
If you agree that while not deceived, Adam ate of the fruit of the tree, which God commanded him not to eat.
Then you must also agree that Adam willfully disobeyed God.
I can't agree because I don't actually know. There also could be a deficiency of experiential knowledge so that it allowed Adam to be persuaded or misled.

When we work off the premise that it's wrong to disobey God, it concludes with all certainty that Adam's choice/decision was wrong. So, since we're looking at two male and female images of God, without fault in a state of innocence; then as a matter of grace, it's safer for me to say that Adam didn't know what he was doing, than to say he did.
What you appear to be saying is that Adam did not want to disobey God, but willfully did.
Not willfully as in an intention to cause harm. There could exist that deviation in your paraphrase.

Scripture denotes Adam was put in a situation where he had to choose who to believe, God or Eve. Whether he willfully disobeyed would be contingent on his motive at the time. If the woman ate first and she did not die, but rather had her eyes opened, she could have been persuading Adam through questioning his reasoning to trust God, while seeing her alive and possibly telling him her eyes were opened. I don't know. He may have been focused on questioning his self and he ate to see if he was wrong, rather than he ate because he distrusted God.

So, I typically express that I think he ate reluctantly as if he were unsure about himself. But I don't know, so I go with grace.
However, since Adam was not deceived, as the Bible says, then it's a contradiction to say Adam did not want to disobey God, since Adam's choice was made with the knowledge that what he was doing was wrong against God, and so he ate the fruit, knowing full well that this was the truth.
Hence Adam willfully chose to disobey God, following the course he wanted to take.
I've said this and gave supporting evidence from scripture many times, that the scriptures do NOT denote that Adam was not deceived. You're referring to 1 Timothy 2:14 where Paul is expressing that Eve was the one deceived, not Adam. Of course, we know this would be true simply because the serpent is not depicted as speaking with Adam. Subsequently, we don't actually know if Adam would have fallen victim to the crafty and subtle beguiling of the serpent as Eve did. We only know he hearkened to the woman who was deceived which he most likely didn't know, which denotes that she talked with him, he listened, and he ended up eating.

Please see above.
Adam knew what he was doing. He was not deceived.
Please review the meaning of deceived if you are still uncertain.
I'm not disagreeing that Adam knew what God told him. I feel the need to say that just in case you may be equating --> Adam knew what he is doing --> with -->Adam knew God said not to eat --> therefore Adam was not deceived.
.

Like I have already said when we speculate that Adam knew what he was doing when disobeying God, it suggests he either wanted to die, or he was second guessing himself, or he may have misunderstood God, or Adam thought God was not truthful or something not yet thought of.

You're relying on a mischaracterization of Paul's intent in 1 Timothy 2:14 to claim Adam knew what he was doing. If that were the case, then Paul would be asserting a contradiction that the woman who had to be deceived into eating, should follow the man who willfully and knowingly rejected God as untrustworthy.
That is extreme speculation.
We do not want to add these to this discussion.
It's not extreme. There are prominent theologians like Aquinas that have written about the possibility that Adam ate because he didn't want to live without Eve.
This too, is extreme speculation.
Please, let us not get into these unverifiable guesses.
It isn't that extreme. By the way, WE are speculating precisely because we don't know. The syntax in Genesis 3 denotes God expressing that Adam hearkened to the woman and therefore the implicature limits the speculation to the exchange between Eve and Adam that was followed by Adam eating. We don't know what that exchange was, but God's judgment suggests that Adam would not have eaten if he had not listened to the woman.

The extreme speculation is actually the one alluding to Adam knowing that God was not being truthful. That claim is that Adam was not misled by believing the woman who was deceived, but that Adam knew exactly what he was doing when he disobeyed God and began to die. And subsequently, it is said that Adam is seen blaming Eve. As I see it, that's all a mischaracterization of the events because God Himself verifies both Adam's and Eve's account that she was beguiled, and in a state of being beguiled, and that she persuaded her husband into eating the fruit.

Again. We would agree you are speculating.
Did Adam know what he was doing?
A willful act refers to an intentional, conscious, and deliberate action carried out with the purpose of achieving a specific result. It is characterized by a voluntary and knowing decision to perform an act or omission that one is aware is prohibited by law or contrary to duty.
Sources 1 2

Deceived :
To be deceived means to be caused to believe something that is not true, often through deliberate misrepresentation, lies, or misleading actions. It involves being misled or tricked, either by someone else's deceitful behavior or by one's own failure to recognize the truth. This can include being misled about facts, being manipulated into a false belief
Sources 1 2 3 4 5
I can agree we are speculating about what exactly happened when Adam was listening to Eve, and I can agree with the descriptions of the terms willful act and deceived.
According to the Bible, and secular sources, Adam was not deceived, but knew what he was doing.
This is not accurate. If they mean Adam knew God is a liar, then I don't believe that. If they mean he knew that God commanded him not to eat, then I would not disagree.
Where did you read that in the Bible? Can we agree, nowhere?

It's right here Genesis 3:17 -->And unto Adam he said, Because thou hast hearkened unto the voice of thy wife, and hast eaten of the tree, of which I commanded thee, saying, Thou shalt not eat of it: cursed is the ground for thy sake; in sorrow shalt thou eat of it all the days of thy life;
If it comes from in your head, it's an idea, and we are not considering ideas, are we.
The syntactic markers of God's judgment in Genesis 3:17 show Adam believing Eve's persuasion over and against God's command. Hence it was a circumstance where Adam had to make a choice of who to believe.


Let the Bible have the say.
Adam was not forced, but yes, he had a choice, between whether he would obey God, or not.
The unwanted circumstance implies an antecedent event he did not volunteer for. The phrase "listened to" in Genesis 3:17 denotes that Adam was persuaded by his wife and he ate.

Adam and Eve are shown to be believing God right up until the serpent enters the picture and the serpent is notably described as crafty and subtle. God Himself acknowledges the account that the serpent initiated the chain of events through introducing a lie presented to two male female images of God, both pure without fault in a state of innocence. The lie was slander against God, and it was delivered through subtlety.
Adam chose to eat of the fruit God specifically told him not to eat, according to the Genesis account. Thus Adam disobeyed God. Not because he was deceived. Genesis 3:6; Romans 5:18; 1 Timothy 2:14
God specifically told Adam Not to eat. Obviously, when I say Adam was forced to choose who to believe, it acknowledges that. None of these scriptures say Adam willfully disobeyed God.
Pardon me?
Please explain how the fact that Adan did not eat the fruit, prior, impress on your mind that Adam did not deliberately or willingly eat the fruit. :!?:
Simple, since Adam didn't eat of it before the incident with the serpent and Eve, it infers he was believing that God was protecting them from a fruit that would bring death to him and his wife. If he deliberately wanted to disobey God and eat, he would have already done so. It's like a judge will use one's record to show a pattern or an isolated incident.
Could Adam have obeyed God of his own accord?
By "one's own accord" implies by "one's own initiative". The actual initiative is God's Love based command to obey. Human initiative is typically considered a responsive disposition, not the origin. I do know that Adam's disposition obeyed God right up until the incident with the serpent and Eve.
Please answer the question yes or no, if that is not difficult for you. Thanks.
Then I will say no and the reason why is because there are scriptures that denote God had a plan from the beginning such as “The Lamb slain from the foundation of the world”. Such scriptures show God’s plan of salvation was set before Adam’s fall and subsequently they indicate Adam could not have altered the events.
 
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CoreyD

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If you mean to describe the act of stealing from a bank, I will acknowledge the act denotes a person who wants money and is willing to break the law to get it. I would not think they want to break the law, but rather they wanted the money and breaking the law was a means to that end.
That comment contains a contradiction.
If you cannot see it, it is understandable, why.

I can't agree because I don't actually know. There also could be a deficiency of experiential knowledge so that it allowed Adam to be persuaded or misled.
So, the Bible says Adam was not deceived, but you say he was.
That's okay with me. It's your free willed decision.

When we work off the premise that it's wrong to disobey God, it concludes with all certainty that Adam's choice/decision was wrong. So, since we're looking at two male and female images of God, without fault in a state of innocence; then as a matter of grace, it's safer for me to say that Adam didn't know what he was doing, than to say he did.
Adam did not know he was eating the fruit that God said not to eat?
That is absolutely false, and you know that better than any 5 year old... who knows that, don't you.

Not willfully as in an intention to cause harm. There could exist that deviation in your paraphrase.

Scripture denotes Adam was put in a situation where he had to choose who to believe, God or Eve.
That is not scriptural. Where did you read that, may I ask?
Please quote the verse.

Whether he willfully disobeyed would be contingent on his motive at the time. If the woman ate first and she did not die, but rather had her eyes opened, she could have been persuading Adam through questioning his reasoning to trust God, while seeing her alive and possibly telling him her eyes were opened. I don't know. He may have been focused on questioning his self and he ate to see if he was wrong, rather than he ate because he distrusted God.
That is a lot of speculation... which we can discarded, since we have no need of them.
They are not useful in this discussion.

So, I typically express that I think he ate reluctantly as if he were unsure about himself. But I don't know, so I go with grace.
That's out o' here. Gone.

I've said this and gave supporting evidence from scripture many times, that the scriptures do NOT denote that Adam was not deceived. You're referring to 1 Timothy 2:14 where Paul is expressing that Eve was the one deceived, not Adam. Of course, we know this would be true simply because the serpent is not depicted as speaking with Adam. Subsequently, we don't actually know if Adam would have fallen victim to the crafty and subtle beguiling of the serpent as Eve did. We only know he hearkened to the woman who was deceived which he most likely didn't know, which denotes that she talked with him, he listened, and he ended up eating.
Scripture says Adam was not deceived. 1 Timothy 2:14
You did read that. So, for you to say, "scriptures do NOT denote that Adam was not deceived", is to make one wonder what scripture you are reading.

I'm not disagreeing that Adam knew what God told him. I feel the need to say that just in case you may be equating --> Adam knew what he is doing --> with -->Adam knew God said not to eat --> therefore Adam was not deceived.
.
If you pour gasoline around McDonalds, and the set a flame to it. Then say you did not know what you were doing.
They will send you for mental evaluation.
If they find you are in your right mind, well... they will send you to prison.

I already said what I meant by Adam knew what he was doing. I spelled it out word for word.
You read it, so if you are claiming you are not sure what I meant, I'm not sure you are paying attention to what I wrote.


Like I have already said when we speculate that Adam knew what he was doing when disobeying God, it suggests he either wanted to die, or he was second guessing himself, or he may have misunderstood God, or Adam thought God was not truthful or something not yet thought of.
Or he chose to rebel against God, because he wanted to be independent of God, choosing to make his own decisions on hat is right and wrong.

You're relying on a mischaracterization of Paul's intent in 1 Timothy 2:14 to claim Adam knew what he was doing. If that were the case, then Paul would be asserting a contradiction that the woman who had to be deceived into eating, should follow the man who willfully and knowingly rejected God as untrustworthy.
o_O Pardon me!?
I don't understand what you just said.

It's not extreme. There are prominent theologians like Aquinas that have written about the possibility that Adam ate because he didn't want to live without Eve.
So... Does a person's speculation become any less of a speculation because of who they are?
Are you saying you are not speculating, and we should accept that although it's not written, and thee is no way to verify it?
Why?

It isn't that extreme. By the way, WE are speculating precisely because we don't know. The syntax in Genesis 3 denotes God expressing that Adam hearkened to the woman and therefore the implicature limits the speculation to the exchange between Eve and Adam that was followed by Adam eating. We don't know what that exchange was, but God's judgment suggests that Adam would not have eaten if he had not listened to the woman.
If you want to believe that, that's fine by me.
However, in this discussion, I'm interested in facts - what can be known, rather than wild imaginings.
You said...
For all I know, upon finding out she had eaten, Adam was expecting her to immediately show signs of dying. But when he didn't see any, he may have wondered if He had misunderstood God, so he ate to see if the woman was correct about the fruit being good as pertains to knowledge.
That is a wild imagining, which you cannot substantiate.
Paul said,...
"Brothers, I have applied these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, so that you may learn from us not to go beyond what is written. Then you will not take pride in one man over another."
1 Corinthians 4:6
That is a good rule, we do well to stick to. Would you not agree?

The extreme speculation is actually the one alluding to Adam knowing that God was not being truthful. That claim is that Adam was not misled by believing the woman who was deceived, but that Adam knew exactly what he was doing when he disobeyed God and began to die. And subsequently, it is said that Adam is seen blaming Eve. As I see it, that's all a mischaracterization of the events because God Himself verifies both Adam's and Eve's account that she was beguiled, and in a state of being beguiled, and that she persuaded her husband into eating the fruit.
Paul confirmed that Eve was deceived, and Adam was not. 1 Timothy 2:14
I don't see why you are having a problem accepting that.
Would you like that scripture to say something else... What would you rather it said?

I can agree we are speculating about what exactly happened when Adam was listening to Eve,
We? That would be you. Not we.

and I can agree with the descriptions of the terms willful act and deceived.
You "can agree with the descriptions of the terms willful act and deceived."?
So, you agree Adam's sin was willful, and he was not deceived?

This is not accurate. If they mean Adam knew God is a liar, then I don't believe that. If they mean he knew that God commanded him not to eat, then I would not disagree.
Are you saying you disagree with the following...
A willful act refers to an intentional, conscious, and deliberate action carried out with the purpose of achieving a specific result. It is characterized by a voluntary and knowing decision to perform an act or omission that one is aware is prohibited by law or contrary to duty.
Sources 1 2

Deceived :
To be deceived means to be caused to believe something that is not true, often through deliberate misrepresentation, lies, or misleading actions. It involves being misled or tricked, either by someone else's deceitful behavior or by one's own failure to recognize the truth. This can include being misled about facts, being manipulated into a false belief
Sources 1 2 3 4 5

What's not accurate about these?

It's right here Genesis 3:17 -->And unto Adam he said, Because thou hast hearkened unto the voice of thy wife, and hast eaten of the tree, of which I commanded thee, saying, Thou shalt not eat of it: cursed is the ground for thy sake; in sorrow shalt thou eat of it all the days of thy life;
That says Adam was forced to choose between who to believe, God or the woman?
It does not say that at all. How do you read? It simply says Adam chose to listen to his wife.
Coupled with 1 Timothy2:14 Adam willfully chose to go along with his wife in disobeying God. Not because he was misled or tricked.
That is scripture.
You are rejecting it. Why?

The syntactic markers of God's judgment in Genesis 3:17 show Adam believing Eve's persuasion over and against God's command. Hence it was a circumstance where Adam had to make a choice of who to believe.
No. That is what you believe.
However, let me get you clear before I proceed.
What do you mean by "Adam believing Eve's persuasion"? Pease elaborate as clearly as possible.

The unwanted circumstance implies an antecedent event he did not volunteer for. The phrase "listened to" in Genesis 3:17 denotes that Adam was persuaded by his wife and he ate.
Persuaded, as in... be convinced by argument, or by reasons offered or suggested from reflection, etc.; to cause to believe?

Adam and Eve are shown to be believing God right up until the serpent enters the picture and the serpent is notably described as crafty and subtle. God Himself acknowledges the account that the serpent initiated the chain of events through introducing a lie presented to two male female images of God, both pure without fault in a state of innocence. The lie was slander against God, and it was delivered through subtlety.
You are saying Adam was deceived by Satan, or his wife?
Also where did you read that Adam and Eve are shown to be believing God right up until the serpent enters the picture, and how does that prevent having a choice to go contrary, and acting on it?

God specifically told Adam Not to eat. Obviously, when I say Adam was forced to choose who to believe, it acknowledges that. None of these scriptures say Adam willfully disobeyed God.
You are saying that Adam's action was not intentional, conscious, and deliberate action carried out with the purpose of achieving a specific result?

Simple, since Adam didn't eat of it before the incident with the serpent and Eve, it infers he was believing that God was protecting them from a fruit that would bring death to him and his wife.
An inference. Okay.

If he deliberately wanted to disobey God and eat, he would have already done so. It's like a judge will use one's record to show a pattern or an isolated incident.
He deliberately disobeyed God and ate. Did he not.
He was not deceived into eating.
So, at some point... when his wife disobeyed, Adam disobeyed... doing so of his own accord.
That is the point. Adam acted of his own free will.

What you are arguing currently does not change the fact that Adam made a decision - a choice that was unforced... a willful and deliberate decision to side with his wife who disobeyed God.
Let's refocus on the topic.

By "one's own accord" implies by "one's own initiative". The actual initiative is God's Love based command to obey. Human initiative is typically considered a responsive disposition, not the origin. I do know that Adam's disposition obeyed God right up until the incident with the serpent and Eve.
I do not understand anything you said here. What you are saying here sound garbled.
Can you please quote a reference that says what you are trying to say.
I would make more sense of that. Thanks.

Then I will say no and the reason why is because there are scriptures that denote God had a plan from the beginning such as “The Lamb slain from the foundation of the world”. Such scriptures show God’s plan of salvation was set before Adam’s fall and subsequently they indicate Adam could not have altered the events.
Many people have this view. However, if one misunderstands that expression, it can be understood why they would have such a view.
That is a topic for another thread.
If you want to discuss it, start a new thread, in response to this.
I'm not discussing that here.
 
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stevevw

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The view of most people, is that free will is a philosophy.
Free will is a philosophical concept that refers to the ability of individuals to make choices and take actions without being coerced, especially when multiple options are available.

If it were that the Bible did not exist, then we could not argue that any concept is philosophical.
However, the Bible uses terms, we can understand, and gather their meaning.

The first use of the term persons accept as being "free will" is found at Hosea 14:4.
The Hebrew word is nedabah, which comes from the Hebrew word nadab, of which Topical Lexicon says...
The verb נָדַב consistently underlines a movement of the heart that is neither coerced nor merely dutiful. It describes people stirred from within to give, serve, or step forward because they have first been moved by God. Throughout Scripture this spirit of readiness is linked to worship, stewardship, civic responsibility, and warfare, revealing a multifaceted biblical theology of voluntary devotion.

This willingness is seen at Exodus 25:2 every man whose heart prompts him; and Exodus 35:21 Everyone whose heart stirred him and everyone whose spirit prompted him.
Thus, the term freewill was derived, since nedabah involves an action that is both willing and voluntary, done freely - of one's own accord... one's free will.
I like the idea of being stirred within. It speaks of conscience and a choice or something that needs attention and a delibaration or action over.
The term free will is therefore not philosophical, but theological.
Ah ha, that makes sense.
Exercising free will first started with God, and as humans are made in God's image, they too have this God given attribute, as can be seen in the scriptures where God allows persons to give him worship of their own accord, or of their own free will.

In other words, God gave humans the opportunity to make a personal choice regarding their course in life.
Hence, Deuteronomy 30:19, 20
Yes and we also see this in how God allowed people and even the prophets to choose to go their own way and God patiently waiting for them to come around lol. Ok I tried it my way and now I see it doesn't work. Lets try it your way God. Plus we don't hear of all the trials and tribulations these great people had before they were great lol.
The argument that humans are not free, whether such arguments come from philosophers or those debating on this thread, have been shown to be baseless.
Thats why I think there is another layer to the arguements. Most of these arguements are based on materialism. Solid, visible, and testable processes that lead from one thing to another. That are wholly assumed to be the only factors tin play.

But we know from the mind and consciousness and lived experience and reality that there are other persistent laws of nature and reality that cannot be measures by material processes or rational and logical reasoning. Sometimes the best evidence is the lived reality.

If its lived out over and over and over again thats like good science. The same result is repeating in the tests of life which show free will is real. Like morality. This is another aspect of humans, a more spiritiual and transcedent aspect that also have laws of nature and reality.
The Bible even dismisses these arguments in one statement.
Live in freedom, but do not use your freedom as a cover-up for evil; live as servants of God. 1 Peter 2:16
I think this is full of free will. Imagine that you are a Christian and you had to be obedient as a choice. The goodness and purity of being a servant comes from choosing to be a servant as Christ did.

We could act like everyone else and defy, standup and tear down the evil. But we are to be servants in the face of that evil and in doing so expose that evil. This is a radical idea to modern society and materialism where every cell is suppose to be driven to survival of the fittest.

But also the idea that Christ will truely set you free. Which implies there are levels of freedom. That perhaps the idea of no free will which is part of denying Christ is really a trap that binds us. That its actually the opposite. By admitting we have free will and can defy God or others we surrender our will and become truely free.

This same principle is in AA. People have to hand their self will over to the will of a higher power. Be that God or the AA group. So long as its not your will over all else. But by giving in we win. By letting go and letting God we gain true freedom because only by allowing a perfect God who knows humans best and what is best can achieve this freedom everyone is looking for.
So, the cry that we have no freedom, is not true, scripturally.
I
 
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CoreyD

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I think this is full of free will. Imagine that you are a Christian and you had to be obedient as a choice. The goodness and purity of being a servant comes from choosing to be a servant as Christ did.

But also the idea that Christ will truely set you free. Which implies there are levels of freedom. That perhaps the idea of no free will which is part of denying Christ is really a trap that binds us. That its actually the opposite. By admitting we have free will and can defy God or others we surrender our will and become truely free.
I agree. It's a personal choice to let go, and let God, because God does not force us to let go. It's up to us.
 
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Psalm 54:6 , Leviticus 22:21, Exodus 35:29

Acts 17:21-32
"in times past God overlooked their ignorance, but now commands all men everywhere to repent, because he has appointed a day in the which He will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom He has appointed and has given assurance unto all mankind I that He rise Him from the dead."
 
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stevevw

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I agree. It's a personal choice to let go, and let God, because God does not force us to let go. It's up to us.
I have been thinking about this since you mentioned it. Its a different way to look at free will. Not from the freedoms humans demand like individual right to self determination or autonomy. We constantly here about individual and group rights to freedoms.

But from the other side of the coin. When humans become too rightful of their own self rights and will. To the point that it leads to actual bondage and loss of freedom.

Then its a case that we have to admit defeat and realise we are really not good at knowing what is freedom at all. That its actually by surrendering that we gain true freedom and control. Its paradoxial to this world.

But I think its a truth principle in life and it stems back to Christs example of His sacrifice in overcoming sin and death that we can be truely free.
 
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BNR32FAN

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There is no "free will" of man in Scripture. Man is a slave to sin (Jn 8:34). Slaves are not free.

Free will is the power to make all moral choices.
Can you choose to live completely sin-free?
You cannot.
Then your will is not completely free.
You have limited free will, ability to make some moral choices, but not all.
So then an atheist can’t offer help or give to those in need out of compassion?
 
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BNR32FAN

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Previously addressed. . .see post #2.

Can you choose to be sinless, to never sin?
If you can, why have you not done so?
That’s like saying I can’t catch a ball unless I can catch it every single time without missing it. Or I can’t type on a keyboard unless I can do it perfectly every time without missing a key. It’s nonsensical.
 
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BNR32FAN

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Previously addressed. . .see post #2.

Can you choose to be sinless, to never sin?
If you can, why have you not done so?
After coming to Christ IS ANYONE CAPABLE OF NEVER SINNING AGAIN? If not are they still slaves to sin?
 
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There isn't any scripture in the Bible that says this.
To be sinless or not is not a moral choice, just as to be born with or without a defect is not a moral choice. It's not even a choice.
You do not have the power to define free will as something you yourself made up and is found in no dictionary - Biblical or otherwise.
No philosopher argues that one must be able to choose to be sinless. :dizzy: So, this must be a new philosophy... Clare's.
Clare’s argument doesn’t make any sense since CHRISTIANS still aren’t capable of living a perfectly sinless life.
 
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