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Does Regeneration Precede Faith?

tdidymas

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Part 2:
Thank you for typing out your thoughts on the matter, but please help me with a few questions your word generated:

  • Would a rescuer going into a burning building to save a few people when he could just as easily and safely save everyone be as glorious as a rescuer who saves everyone?
A human rescuer may not be able to save everyone. Then a person who was actually saved will all the more appreciate being saved. If the burning building wasn't bad enough that the situation was desperate enough to kill most people in it, and then everyone was indeed saved, then the appreciation of being saved would not be as great, because the situation wasn't desperate enough.

But the actual condition of men's souls is so sinful in the sight of God, that lake of fire judgment is deserving for all of them. It is only out of God's kindness that He decides to save some of them. And because we realize we could have been justly lost with the rest of mankind, we appreciate being saved all the more. Are you grateful of God saving you when He could have justly and easily left you to your own devices?

  • Would God show greater Love by saving everyone over saving just a few?
No, because if God did save everyone (as the universalist claims), then sin would not appear so bad as it is. The true condition of the nature of sin in the sight of God is such that it stirs His wrath, and deserves lake of fire judgment. IMO and the way I read scripture, the God-kind of love is seen better in the face of adversity, and the love coming from God for those He saves is ultimately contrasted with the just punishment of wicked people who deserve lake of fire judgment. (Eph. 1:5-6)

  • By your saying “if God loves everyone the same”, suggesting God does not “Love” everyone the same, but are we not called upon to Love everyone the same which means we are told to have a greater “Love” than God?
No, we are not called upon to love everyone the same. The least commandment to love is, "love your neighbor as yourself." This is a far cry from Jesus' command to His disciples, "love one another as I have loved you." For unbelievers who insult, persecute, and abuse us, we are to pray for them and do good to them. But for believers who we must fellowship with, we are to reconcile with them. We are not called to reconcile with unbelievers. Therefore to claim we are called to love everyone the same is a false conclusion. "God causes the sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the righteous and the unrighteous" does not mean that God loves everyone the same. There are many circumstances that God sets up that are the same circumstances for everyone, but there are supernatural events which God performs only for some people He favors.
  • How does God choose who He will and will not “Love”, since we are all the same?
It is God's prerogative. He does not have a reason outside of Himself. He does not look to people to "find out" who is "worthy" of His love. He doesn't look to a person's "humility" to determine if He is going to save that person or not. It begs the question, "how much humility is needed to cause God to save me?" The answer is clear - I can't cause God to save me, because I'm not in control of it. If I keep on thinking I'm in control of it, then I don't have enough humility to be saved. Therefore, to be assured of my salvation, I must rely on God's promises and trust Him 100% that He will save me as He promised. It's all I can do. It's not according to "my free will" but according to God's promise that I believe in. If I believe the gospel, that God has control and will save me from my plight (through Christ) as He promised, then I am assured by scripture that I am already born again. "Enough humility" is a spiritual fruit, and is the result of regeneration, not the cause.
  • Could God Loves everyone, yet some go to hell, be the result of the some refusing to humbly accept His Love/Charity?
According to Rom. 3:11, Titus 3:5, 1 Jn. 5:1 and elsewhere, no one accepts God's love by trusting in Christ, until God regenerates them.
  • If a person refuses God’s Love even though the person really desperately needs God’s Love and does not want to Love or be around Love, be happy in heaven?
If a person refuses God's love, then they don't know God, and would not likely be happy in heaven, because they remain self-centered and following after the lusts of the flesh. Heaven (the future kingdom) will not contain any such person. Everyone desperately needs God's love, but refuses it, because they love the pleasure of sin more than they love God. There may be people who in some ways do not believe in God's love per se, yet are saved, and show it in other ways.
  • I am saying God has done all He can to help the hell bound person to humbly accept His charity as charity, so there comes a point at which there is nothing more God can do for that person to accept His Love. That refuser of Love takes on the lesser objective of helping others to accept God’s Love, partly by going to hell. God still Loves them, so how do you explain it?
If God was grieved that He made man (Gen. 6:6), then He must have had some level of love for them, especially since He waited patiently for them to start calling on His name (ref. Gen. 4:26 & 1 Pet. 3:20). Just as there is a "common grace" in which mankind as a whole receive the benefit of God's grace, there is a "special grace" that God bestows on some. So God has a "common love" for people in general, but also has a "special love" for certain people of His choosing. Jesus also loved Judas to some extent, in a general sort of way, even though He knew Judas was "a devil." God loves people enough to have patience with them, but His patience runs out eventually to the point in which He exacts His justice on them, Rom. 9:22 and 2 Thes. 1:8.


  • You asked: How can God reveal His grace to those He saves, unless there is a contrast of the justice He exercises on those He does not choose to save? Wow! The “contrast” is between how I was before being saved and after I am saved, which is our witness and what Paul taught us to use. I do not know who is/will be saved and not saved, but I do know about myself.
Indeed there is a contrast in our testimony of "before and after" conversion. But I was talking about the contrast between those judged at the "great white throne" judgment and those accepted into the kingdom; between those receiving justice and those receiving grace; between the "sheep and the goats," between the wheat and the tares. We who are saved from the plight of man can appreciate salvation more, when we realize we could have easily and justly been left alone on the wide path to destruction. "But God, being rich in mercy, with the great love with which He loved us..."
  • How do you feel about the lost (What keeps you from having survivor remorse?)? I can see it as being their free will choice to not accept charity and thus be very unhappy if they went to heaven where there is only Godly type Love, but what is your logical explanation?
I feel sad about those lost, but I don't have any "survivor remorse," because I realize that God would have been perfectly just to have left me alone to my own sinful devices. I'm sad for a nephew who once was said to believe (likely out of fear and religious abuse), but is now an atheist. I feel sad for anyone who is lost, but I can't do anything about that, except what God has called me to do. So I look forward to an eternity of paradise with God, and try to love people as best I can according to how I read the Bible.
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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It's not the other way around, as I demonstrate in the OP. Now, if you'd like to challenge the argument that's been provided, by going to Scripture and showing the contrary to be true, I'll gladly engage with you.
It is improper to place the time of action of present participles after the time of action of the main verb. You have wriggled around on this point, arguing both that time sequence is not involved and that it could be contiguous (forgive me if I don't remember your exact words). The fact is, you are arguing that faith in Christ comes after salvation. And it does not matter how many Scriptures I quote or reference that point to God saving those who believe, you always find some way to say those verses support your POV.
 
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Clare73

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Oh you mean like the Corinthians in 1 Corinthians 3. The same Corinthians believers that Paul was addressing in chapter 2?
Carnal immature professors lacking in Christian teaching, not necessarily spiritually dead in unbelief.
 
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BNR32FAN

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Carnal immature professors lacking in Christian teaching, not necessarily spiritually dead in unbelief.
Paul never mentioned them being spiritually dead in 1 Corinthians 2. His statement in chapter 2 was in reference to the believers in chapter 3.
 
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BNR32FAN

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What do you mean by "the way a person is drawn to Him changed"? I recently commented on John 12:32 in another thread. I'll reproduce those comments below:

John 12:32 occurs within the context of Jesus responding to the report that "some Greeks" desired to see Him (v. 20). The arrival of Gentiles signals that the redemptive focus is widening beyond Israel. Jesus interprets this event as the indication that His "hour" has come: the hour of His glorification through death (v. 23). Thus, when He says He will be "lifted up," He refers to His crucifixion (v. 33).​
So when he says πάντας ἑλκύσω ("I will draw all people"), the phrase must be read in light of the preceding Gentile reference and the Johannine theme of universal scope of the gospel, not universal salvation (or the attempt at such). In other words, "all" here does not mean "every individual without exception," but "all kinds of people (Jew and Gentile alike) without distinction." The arrival of Greeks prompts Jesus to declare that His crucifixion will effect a drawing not limited to Jews. The verse, therefore, celebrates the inclusiveness of the atonement's scope (its sufficiency), not the universality of its effect (its efficiency).​
In short, the "drawing" of John 12:32 refers to the world-wide proclamation of the gospel, through which all nations are summoned to faith. It is not a statement on the wooing effects of God's work on the hearts of individuals. The text is missional, not soteriological. Christ's cross will be the magnet of gospel appeal to every tribe and tongue.​

I also went on to say this regarding John 6:44:

In contrast, John 6:44 depicts a different kind of drawing. There, Jesus addresses unbelieving Jews who are grumbling over His claim to be the bread from heaven (vv. 41-43). He rebukes them, essentially telling them to knock it off (μὴ γογγύζετε), as if to declare that it is pointless for them to complain. Why? Why not just address their concerns and try to reason with them? He answers: "No one can (οὐδεὶς δύναται) come to me unless drawn," the implication being that they hadn't been, hence the reason for their persistent unbelief. The problem is not that they haven't been invited, but that they cannot believe. The issue is moral and spiritual inability, not ethnic scope.​
Same verb as in John 12:32, but its sense differs. In John 6, the "drawing" is effectual; it infallibly results in saving faith. Grammatically, the object of "draws him" (ἑλκύσῃ αὐτόν) is the same as the object of "I will raise him" (ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν), both referring back to οὐδεὶς. Thus, while the text explicitly says that the one who is drawn is enabled to come, the grammar also entails that the one who is drawn is the one who comes, believes, and is raised. In other words, the text assumes no distinction between "enabled to come" and "those who do come." It presents man in two categories: those who are unable to come, and those who, being enabled, do so. (More on the grammatical argument for this below.)​
So the Father's drawing in John 6:44 is not the external call of gospel proclamation (as in John 12:32), but the internal, regenerative work of grace whereby the sinner's will is made willing (cf. v. 65, which restates v. 44 but replaces the verb with that of v. 37).​
...​
The main clause, οὐδεὶς δύναται ἐλθεῖν πρός με ("no one is able to come to me"), asserts total inability. The verb δύναται ("is able") makes ability, not willingness, the issue. The conditional clause, ἐὰν μὴ ὁ πατὴρ... ἑλκύσῃ αὐτόν ("unless the Father... draws him"), introduces the single remedy for this inability: divine initiative. The construction is a present general third-class conditional, meaning Jesus is appealing to a general or axiomatic truth about humanity: mankind as a whole is naturally incapable of coming to Christ, apart from the Father's drawing.​
The final clause, κἀγὼ ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν ἐν τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ ("and I will raise him up on the last day"), is not part of the condition, but its logical consequence. Grammatically, the αὐτὸν ("him") in both ἑλκύσῃ ("draws") and ἀναστήσω ("will raise") refers to the same person. Thus, the one drawn is the one raised. This is easily seen if restating the logic of the verse contrapositively:​
"If he is able to come, then the Father [has drawn] him, and I will raise him up."​
Who is the one raised? The one enabled to come; the one drawn by the Father. We could say, theologically, that the one raised is the one who actually comes. But what the logic of John 6:44 is declaring is that there isn't a distinction. Jesus assumes no difference between those enabled to come, and those who actually do so. The drawing is effectual -- not in making people into "automatons," but in changing the disposition of their hearts such that the sin they once loved they now hate, and the God they once opposed (Rom. 8:7-8) they are now naturally inclined toward. They will as their heart desires, and their heart desires Christ.​
This aligns with verse 37, which says, "all that the Father gives me will come to me." Interestingly, verse 65 restates verse 44, but replaces the verb with that of verse 37. That interchange of ἑλκύω ("draw") and δίδωμι ("give") indicates a paradigmatic relationship between the two verbs within parallel syntagmatic contexts, suggesting that the Father's drawing and giving are conceptually identical acts:​
"All that the Father gives/draws to me will come to me."​
"No one can come to me unless the Father draws/gives them to me (the one drawn/given will be raised up on the last day)."​
So you’re saying that verse 32 in John 12 is in reference to verse 20 but not verse 25 and 26?

“He who loves his life loses it, and he who hates his life in this world will keep it to life eternal. If anyone serves Me, he must follow Me; and where I am, there My servant will be also; if anyone serves Me, the Father will honor him.”
‭‭John‬ ‭12‬:‭25‬-‭26‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

I don’t see why you’re making that connection. It seems to me that verses 35-36 correlate more to verses 25-26 than verse 20.

“So Jesus said to them, “For a little while longer the Light is among you. Walk while you have the Light, so that darkness will not overtake you; he who walks in the darkness does not know where he goes. While you have the Light, believe in the Light, so that you may become sons of Light.” These things Jesus spoke, and He went away and hid Himself from them.”
‭‭John‬ ‭12‬:‭35‬-‭36‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

Verse 32 sits between verses 25 and 36 which are directly related to coming to Christ.
 
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bling

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You repeatedly frame your argument as a discussion of "what a person can do before regeneration," but you have not demonstrated this from Scripture. Your claims about pre-regenerate "acts" or "choices" are speculative. They are not exegetically grounded. Scripture consistently portrays unregenerate humanity as morally and spiritually incapable of submitting to God in any fashion. Any true reception of God's offer requires this moral and spiritual capability, which the unregenerate lack. Mere acts of self-interest, self-preservation, or worldly compliance do not qualify as responding to God in the biblical sense.
If there were some nice book chapter and serve scriptures stating beyond any shadow of doubt that it is man’s free will choice to accept or reject God’s Love to be regenerated, we all would have found it by now and not have anything to discuss.

This idea of “election” prior to the individual’s involvement was not popular until Calvin, so we are really talking about “Free Will”, but some have redefined free will so we could be using the same word with different meanings.

Exodus 35:29 All the Israelite men and women who were willing brought to the Lord freewill offerings for all the work the Lord through Moses had commanded them to do.

John 7: 17 Anyone who chooses to do the will of God will find out whether my teaching comes from God or whether I speak on my own.

Gen 3 has Adam and Eve making choices, so if they could have free will why can none of us have free will.

Deuteronomy 30:19 says “This day, I call upon the heaven and the earth as witnesses [that I have warned] you: I have set before you life and death, the blessing and the curse. Choose life, so that you and your offspring will live.”

From a strictly scientific perspective they cannot show if humans do or do not have free will, but are we in the same boat?

I do not see how man fulfills his earthly objective without free will (obtaining, using and growing Godly type Love). What do you see as man’s earthly objective?

For man to have Godly type Love he has to have free will or the “love” is some lesser type of “love”. An instinctive or programmed into man type of love would be a robotic type love and if God forced you to accept His Love and thus become a “lover” that would not be “Loving” on God’s part nor would the ‘love” you got be Godly type Love. Do you see God’s Love as being more than just a knee jerk reaction and thus part of a free will choice?

You say: “Any true reception of God's offer requires this moral and spiritual capability, which the unregenerate lack.”

But what morals and spiritual capability is needed to selfishly (sinfully) accept charity as charity?

Here you say: “Mere acts of self-interest, self-preservation, or worldly compliance do not qualify as responding to God in the biblical sense.” OK, the person is not positively responding to God and still hating God as his enemy, but he is willing to humbly accept pure undeserved charity as charity.


I'm still unclear on the purpose of this speculation to begin with. Are you suggesting that a sinful act of self-interest somehow elicits God's grace? What would this act be, concretely? Can you describe what a person actually does that moves God to respond with regeneration?
Acts 2:37 When the people heard this, they were cut to the heart and said to Peter and the other apostles, “Brothers, what shall we do?”

These 3000 on Pentecost, were not accepting God’s Love at this point, but were experiencing a death blow to their hearts, because of the bad they had done. Accepting the fact they had murdered the Messiah, is reaching the bottom of life’s pit. Accept the evil they had done is not worthy of anything good from God and they should be expecting lightning to come from heaven destroying them.

These 3000 cried for help (repent [turn]) like the prodigal son and showed a strong willingness to be relieved from a painful heart, but they fully deserve to feel the way they do and for God to have them destroyed right then. It is hard to believe they would not accept Peter’s/God’s help, but some seem to have gone on rejecting God’s help.

These 3000 experienced a huge need for God’s help and just accepted that help.
You also claim to agree with most of my exegetical comments, but this cannot be the case. If you truly accepted that the spiritually dead are incapable of acknowledging God, then your category of pre-regenerate acts could not exist. Your framework depends entirely on a bifurcation of human response ("before regeneration" vs. "after regeneration") for which you have provided no textual support.
It takes a fool to not believe in a god, so they can be spiritual death without being a fool for not all unbelievers are fools.

Being selfish to the point of being humbly willing to accept pure undeserved charity, very much a possible action for a Spiritually dead person.

Every time a “choice” is given in scripture, I see them as free will choices, so are you declaring man does not have free will and we need to look into this?
It is therefore not a matter of philosophical plausibility or appealing to worldly examples like solders surrendering or "whosoever" statements. The burden is on you to show, from Scripture, that pre-regenerate acts of spiritual significance exist. Until you provide that, the conversation remains purely speculative.
Are you not the one “speculating”/assuming, that man does not have free will?

I fully agree man does not have total free will to do anything like God has free will, but man has to be given some limited free will to fulfill his earthly objective.
Scripture never presents God's choice as dependent on anything humans do prior to regeneration. The difference lies not in people themselves but in God's sovereign initiative to effectually draw some (John 6:37, 44). If regeneration depended on a pre-regenerate difference in men, salvation would be meritorious.
How is that not saying: “God is arbitrary in His choice of who to save?”

You say: “If regeneration depended on a pre-regenerate difference in men, salvation would be meritorious”, which is not true. There can be differences which are not righteous, noble, honorable, and worthy of anything good.
What are you asking here? The cross achieves the salvation of those whom God sovereignly draws. It does not depend on a pre-regenerate human "willingness" to cooperate.
The cross like everything else, God does, is to help willing individuals in the fulfilling of their objective. What else would you see God doing to help willing individuals?
"Whosoever" simply identifies "those who" do something (e.g., John 3:16, πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων, "all who believe"). It signals choice, not autonomous free will in the salvific sense. The issue is the nature of the choice: pre-regeneration, it is governed by a worldly, God-hostile disposition; post-regeneration, it is governed by a renewed, Spirit-enabled disposition.
Free will is a huge topic which I do not mind discussing, but you did not address the question which has to do with the need for free will:

What is your understanding of man's earthly objective?
Can the spiritual dead make choices between the sins he will do or does God make them for him?
A morally neutral act at self-preservation is in no way analogous to accepting God's offer, and it certainly doesn't motivate Him to respond favorably.
The fact your selfishly taking action for self-preservation is a “negative”. God positive action toward us is out of our willingness to humble accept His charity as charity, but that is nothing honorable.
The son's realization ("coming to himself") does not operate apart from the father's prior provision and invitation. The text's focus is narrative, not a prescriptive model of pre-regenerate human initiative. I'm finished discussing the parable. If you can't provide a single didactic text that illustrates the view you're wanting to argue, there's no point to this discussion.
No. The son’s coming to his senses has nothing to do with the father (he could have been a lousy father), but it has everything to do with the son starving to death in the pigsty.



The difference is divine charity is of an entirely different order than human charity
If you are being selfless, doing totally for the sake of the other person, like Christ/God are selfless it is the same.
When a soldier "accepts" a gift from an enemy, the gift is external, and the soldier remains an autonomous agent acting on self-interest. Divine grace, however, is the impartation of spiritual life itself. It is internal and transformative, not external and merely transactional. To receive what God offers is necessarily to receive God Himself. There is no genuine "acceptance" apart from acknowledging and delighting in Him as God. A so-called "selfish" acceptance of divine grace is therefore not real acceptance at all. If someone seeks only relief from judgment or some external benefit while rejecting God Himself, what they are "accepting" is a mere caricature of God's gift, not actual acceptance of what's offered. Why would God respond favorably to that by regenerating them (if regeneration were contingent on something man does)? Divine grace, in its salvific sense, is precisely the offering of God's own presence and life, not a detached favor. He Himself is the gift, which makes the notion of self-interested reception incoherent.
Like the prodigal son when an unregenerated sinner comes to his sense it is not because he believes he will be showered with unbelievable wonderful gifts, but his coming to his senses is mainly to possibly get out of starving to death in the pigsty of life, which he fully deserves to have happen to him.
 
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bling

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Who said anything about a pill? Humility is not an "emotion" as you claim, but is a spiritual understanding of one's own condition. "Blessed are the poor in spirit, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven." When you talk about "emotions" you are talking about living according to the flesh - that is, acting out what the body is telling you to do, whether good or bad - Rom. 8:13.
I am being metaphorical by saying: “humility is not a pill you swallow.” It is not one thing. Since prideful people can be made humble, express the characteristic of humility, and still be hell bound means it is not divinely spiritual, since hell bound people are not divinely spiritual.

Humility is not defined as something just spiritual and although it includes emotions it is much more than just an emotion and might be said to be a characteristic of the person. Everyone might have the characteristic of humility, but at a wide range of degrees.
2 Cor. 4:3-4 "But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost: In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them."
1 Cor. 2:14 "But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned."

I have talked about scripture like this many times, but it seems like you're not listening, or completely disregarding it. The true condition of man's soul is that he is imprisoned in the blindness and deafness of spiritual death, which the devil (the "serpent") has captured them. They are in bondage. They think they are ok and don't need a savior, because they think they are righteous enough to be accepted by God (if they even believe He exists). The gospel first tells them the bad news that they are headed for destruction - "wide the gate and broad the way that leads to destruction, and many there be that find it."

Whoever remains in their unbelieving state are there by their own devices (they are culpable for their unbelief), even though the devil has blinded them from the truth. So then, it takes God to make someone spiritual, at least enough to make them see how they deserve lake of fire judgment, in addition to having some hope that Jesus can save them from it. This is clearly taught in the cited verses, as well as Eph. 2:1-10.
I’m not sure what you are trying to get across with Eph. 2:8





People use Eph 2:8 “For it is by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this not from yourselves, it is the gift of God” to show “faith” is a gift and forget about verse 9 which says: “not by works, so that no one can boast.” The gift cannot be grammatical correct and be “faith”, but you do not have to know Greek, just look at verse 9. If “faith” were the gift then Paul is telling us faith cannot be worked for and earned which is not logical or discussed as even an option anywhere else. How would people go about working to obtain faith anyway (it is to quit working, trying to do it yourself and start trusting). The “gift” in Eph. 2:8 is the whole salvation process which Paul talks about in other places, showing people trying to earn salvation.



I can look up genders and dust off my Greek New Testament, but here is what Barnes and Robertson have to say and they do an honest job as far as I can tell:



And that not of yourselves - That is, salvation does not proceed from yourselves. The word rendered "that" - ͂ touto - is in the neuter gender, and the word "faith" - ́ pistis - is in the feminine. The word "that," therefore, does not refer particularly to faith, as being the gift of God, but to "the salvation by grace" of which he had been speaking. This is the interpretation of the passage which is the most obvious, and which is now generally conceded to be the true one; see Bloomfield. Many critics, however, as Doddridge, Beza, Piscator, and Chrysostom, maintain that the word "that" ( ͂ touto ) refers to "faith" ( ́ pistis ); and Doddridge maintains that such a use is common in the New Testament. As a matter of grammar this opinion is certainly doubtful, if not untenable; but as a matter of theology it is a question of very little importance.





Robertson, on the topic of pronouns, wrote:

9. Gender and Number of outos. ... In general, like other adjectives, outos agrees with its substantive in gender and number, whether predicate or attributive. ... In Eph. 2:8 , ..., there is no reference to pisteos in touto, but rather to the idea of salvation in the clause before. (A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the New Testament, p.704)



Robertson, on the topic of particles, wrote:

(ii) Kai. ... The Mere Connective ('And') ... kai tauta (frequent in ancient Greek). See in particular Eph. 2:8 , kai touto ouk ex umon, where touto refers to the whole conception, not to chariti. (A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the New Testament, pp. 1181-1182)



Robertson, on the topic of prepositions, wrote:

(d) dia ... 3. 'Passing Between' or 'Through.' The idea of interval between leads naturally to that of passing between two objects or parts of objects. 'Through' is thus not the original meaning of dia, but is a very common one. ... The agent may also be expressed by dia. This function was also performed in the ancient Greek, through, when means or instrument was meant, the instrumental case was commonly employed. dia is thus used with inanimate and animate objects. Here, of course, the agent is conceived as coming in between the non-attainmnet and the attainment of the object in view. ... Abstract ideas are frequently so expressed, as sesosmenoi dia pisteos (Eph. 2:8 ), ... (A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the New Testament, pp. 580-582)





"Gift" and "faith," are both nouns and would not need to agree. However, agreement in gender is necessary between a pronoun and its antecedent. The demonstrative pronoun will change its gender to match the previous noun (or other substantive) to which it refers.



This verse tells us that the antecedent for "This" is also the "gift of God." But the "gift" cannot be "faith" because there is no agreement in gender between "faith" and the demonstrative pronoun, "touto" (This).



You can look up lots of Greek scholars work and let me know if you find any one disagreeing with this, because I have not among scholars.



I do agree “natural faith” which all mature adults have is a gift from God and, as we know from scripture: people do place natural faith in lots of things and people even worshipping rocks and wood.



The question that needs to be asked: can this God given natural faith be directed toward the Creator, just to believe in the possibility of God’s existence? Since it takes more faith and really foolishness to believe a god does not exist.



You also need to remember the Greek word translated “Faith” in the English is also translated faithfulness. I would say one of the gifts of the Spirit is faithfulness and not faith itself.





You also seem to be assuming that if the nonbelieving sinner has just some kind of “faith”, he will make the noble, honorable, worthy, righteous and holy choice to follow God, but that type of “faith” comes much later and is part of the unbelievable wonderful gifts God showers on the sinner.



The “faith/trust”, autonomous free will choice the sinner makes is between: being macho, hanging in there, being a good soldier, and being willing to take the punishment you fully deserve or wimping out, giving up and surrendering to your enemy. Like any soldier who surrenders to his enemy, you hate your enemy, but are just willing to humbly accept undeserving charity from your enemy. That little questionable “trust” in the possibility of your enemy having an unbelievable Love that could help you is all the faith you need.


The problem is that you aren't taking what Paul clearly taught into consideration. From the point of view of a man who has no understanding of how God works, it appears that they "have to accept the gifts of God as charity to complete the transaction" - you use Mat. 18 as a prooftext. But the fact is, you don't understand that when Jesus said things like, "do this and you will live" (Lk. 10), He is accommodating the unbelieving mind that doesn't understand how God works. Paul taught that the elect are predestined, which means that our placement in God's kingdom was His doing, not ours - 1 Cor. 1:30 "But by His doing you are in Christ Jesus, who became to us wisdom from God, and righteousness and sanctification, and redemption." Therefore, it is a one-sided transaction.

The problem with thinking it's a two-sided transaction is that you have to assume that a person is able to do something (even if it's a "selfish acceptance of pure charity") to cause God to regenerate him. But it doesn't work that way, because God's favor (grace) is unmerited, which means we did nothing at all to cause God's spiritual blessing to be bestowed on us. We were chosen by God only because God chose to love us more than the rest of the world. This is clearly taught in Eph. ch. 1 & 2.
If you want to use Ephesians 1& 2 you need to give specific verses with you interpretation. Above I explained just one verse in Eph. 2 and it took pages of explaining, so I cannot go through two chapters verse by verse, not knowing which verses you are referring to.

You seem to be saying God arbitrarily chooses to save a few with there being no difference from those He does not choose. I use Matt. 18: 21-35 to show forgiveness is not a one-sided transaction.
Oh, but it's what you really mean, and you revealed that in your post. Your "claim" (your agenda) is to teach that if an unregenerate person can naturally accept charity, the implication is that it leads to an unregenerate person receiving the ultimate charity, regeneration and eternal life. Your posts are full of this idea. It reeks of Roman Catholic synergism, which teaches that a person merits salvation by cooperating with God. They also disregard verses like 2 Cor. 4:3-4 by assuming that an unregenerate person can understand and obey the gospel, which is contrary to what Paul clearly taught.
I do not agree with the Roman Catholic synergism so, we do not need to bring up that strawman.

There is a sequence of events starting with God gifting mature adults with free will and the ability to have natural faith.
I take your question to mean, what CAUSES a person to be regenerated. I answered this question in the last post. Did you read it? This is the question of "why does God save some and not others?" If this is not what you mean, then you need to be clear about it. Ask the question in different words, in a different way. Be more specific about your question. If you are meaning, how can we determine if a person is regenerated, that's a completely different question, answered by a different set of scripture.
I answered you question with a set of questions.
Humility does not CAUSE a person to be regenerated. A person who humbles himself before God already has a faith that justifies him. Again, there is a humility based on natural desperation, and a humility based on real faith in God, and the twain shall never meet in the unregenerate soul, but they do meet in the regenerate soul. Titus 3:5 "He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit."
OK, , “there is a humility based on natural desperation, and a humility based on real faith in God, and the twain shall never meet in the unregenerate soul”.

The unregenerated only has humility based on natural desperation and maybe some other stuff, nut not saving faith. He just needs to be humble enough to accept very needed pure undeserving charity as charity.
The humility that is based solely on natural desperation and has no spiritual component is soon forgotten after the need has been satisfied. The one blinded by the "god of this world" will never acknowledge his need for God - Rom. 3:10-11. Such humility is a temporary hiccup in the typical life of an unbeliever. Certainly God uses natural desperation sometimes to aid in His efforts to regenerate a person, just as He uses natural wisdom and reasoning; but those things cannot, and do not regenerate a person. Regeneration is done according to the election of God alone, taught by Paul in Eph. 1 and elsewhere.
If you have specific verse, explain them in context and we will try to see if your explanation is the most logical alternative explanation in context.
Therefore, don't confuse an after-the-fact experience of regeneration with Paul's teaching of how a person is actually regenerated, thereby transitioning them from unsaved to saved. Paul clearly states in Col. 1:13 "For He rescued us from the domain of darkness, and transferred us to the kingdom of His beloved Son." God did not rescue us BECAUSE we asked, but we asked to be rescued BECAUSE of the convicting power of the Spirit. IOW, we were first regenerated, then we began to realize how desperately we needed Christ's deliverance.
OK here is your verse: Col. 1:13 "For He rescued us from the domain of darkness, and transferred us to the kingdom of His beloved Son." I totally agree, but what does God use to determine who He will and will not rescue”? Can God not just as easily and safely rescue everyone or is it a power issue or Love issue with God, because I show neither being a problem?
This statement reveals a lot about your agenda, as I stated above. You are trying here to give some reason in man why God saves some and not others. But according to the verses I cited, among many others, the reason why God saves some and not others is found only in God's will, not in ours. Our "free will" isn't free spiritually until God frees us from the bondage of the devil's lie. We naturally want to think that we have control of our eternal destiny, because we feel some sense of security in that feeling; but unfortunately it's a false sense of security. Only God has control of our eternal destiny, and this is why we have to completely trust Him (i.e. trust Christ). This is what surrender and submission is all about.

Regeneration is only obtained when God decides to do it. Cooperation with God is after-the-fact. We are exhorted by the apostles to cooperate with God, so that circumstances will go well with us, and that God won't have to chastise us. It's all after-the-fact of regeneration. Gal. 5:16 "I say then, Walk in the Spirit, and ye shall not fulfil the lust of the flesh" is an exhortation to Christians, not to unbelievers.
None of the verses you site says: “God is arbitrary in his selection of who he saves.”, but the scriptures are saying that He does the save, not the person.

I give a logical good real reason, why God chose who He saved, while you seem to be saying this hugely important information is not given to us. We need to know in our going to the nonbeliever what help the nonbeliever needs. We can help the nonbeliever see his need to trust God’s Love/mercy/grace/forgiveness and thus accept God’s Love as pure undeserved charity, since he does have the ability to do that act for selfish reasons.
But if a person doesn't know they are a sinner, they won't seek a savior. This was the problem with the Pharisees and teachers of the law. They were oblivious to the fact that Jer. 17:9 applied to them. "The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked: who can know it?"
When sinners go forth hurting themselves and others with their free will choices they will, to begin with, be burden in their conscience, since the law is written on their hearts. They will do all kinds of stuff to relieve this burden, but God is the only real lasting help.

If the person continues to refuse God’s help they might be turned over to satan, but still with the hope things will get so bad they will turn for help from God. And still others will never return and God can know when they reached that point and He will use them for a lesser objective of helping others in their choice.
 
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tdidymas

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I'm no longer going to respond to you, because all you're doing is looking for yet more objections to what I say in complete disregard of the scripture I cite. This means to me that all you want to do is argue about the matter. Consider this my last response.

1. Eph. 2:8 tells us that salvation, grace, and faith all go together. It's a complete package which is the gift of God, and you cannot separate them in reality. If you think you can have one without the other, then you err. Therefore, faith is as much the gift of God as the grace and the salvation.

2. The whole premise of your argument is that a person must yield to a series of influences in which he comes to faith (naturally) in God. But this idea is meritorious by nature, as it assumes that God is looking to the individual to decide on saving them. Then it would be payment or reward for doing something that pleases God or that meets criteria for salvation. Then grace is no longer grace, because NT grace is unmerited. What you are describing is something meritorious. You keep asking the same question repeatedly, "what does God use to determine who He will and will not rescue" which tells me you think God decides who He will save based on what a person does or thinks, which is meritorious by nature.

3. God's "arbitrary choice" of who He saves is His own prerogative, but you don't believe it because you haven't carefully read and exegeted Rom. 9. I cite whole chapters because the truth is found in the context, not in a few prooftext verses.

Since you can't agree with what I'm saying, I'm done here.
 
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d taylor

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So The Bible states the second death is being cast into the lake of fire. So the first death must be the physical death of a person, so a person is not actually spiritually dead to the point they can not believe in God's promise of Eternal Life. To anyone who will believe in Jesus for Eternal Life.

Ephesians 2:1 just says a person is dead in trespasses and sins, If this verse is addressing spiritual death, well spiritual death (the second death) does not actually happen till after the great white throne judgment.
 
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zoidar

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So The Bible states the second death is being cast into the lake of fire. So the first death must be the physical death of a person, so a person is not actually spiritually dead to the point they can not believe in God's promise of Eternal Life. To anyone who will believe in Jesus for Eternal Life.

Ephesians 2:1 just says a person is dead in trespasses and sins, If this verse is addressing spiritual death, well spiritual death (the second death) does not actually happen till after the great white throne judgment.
I would rather say the person is under "death penalty" until he/she repents. It will however not occur until the second death. That's what being dead in sins means.
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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I agree that they were not born again according to the parallel passages saying that they spring up right away then wither away, but the fact still remains that they were able to believe.
We need to be precise about what kind of believing you mean. Superficial assent is not saving faith. Luke 8:13 describes hearers who "received the word with joy" but "have no firm root." That's the language of a "belief" that is superficial and non-saving. That's precisely why Jesus gives the parable; He's distinguishing outward professions from inward, abiding faith.

We also need to be precise about what you mean by "ability." There are two kinds. Everyone has the natural, cognitive ability to assent to a proposition (e.g., "that might be true"), and some can even be emotionally moved to confess belief for a time. That is not the same as the spiritual ability to embrace Christ as Lord and live on that basis. Asserting that natural man has that ability is a contradiction of John 6:44; 1 Cor. 2:14; Rom. 8:7-8.

There’s nothing about the Greek translation that implies a sequence of events in 1 John 5:1.
A logical sequence is naturally implicit in the Greek perfect when paired with a substantival present participle. The Greek perfect encodes a completed action with continuing results, and a present substantival participle denotes an ongoing, characteristic state or activity of the subject. When these occur together, the syntax inherently implies a logical relationship between the completed and the ongoing. That is, the state expressed by the participle exists in connection to the completed action of the perfect.

The direction and emphasis of that sequence (causal, evidential, resultant, etc.) is a question of context, but the conceptual movement from completed action to ongoing state is inherent in the syntax.

Does John 3:18 show a sequence of events?
Yes, but it's not a direct parallel to 1 John 5:1. See below.

In John 3:18 the term “he who does not believe” isn’t actually meant in the present tense even though it’s worded that way in the Greek because every believer was once an unbeliever and will not come into judgment. The term is actually referring to their end result, not their current status.
That's not how aspect works. The present participle ὁ μὴ πιστεύων ("the one not believing") describes one's present, ongoing state of unbelief, not their past or future category. John contrasts two groups as they now stand: those believing (ὁ πιστεύων) and those not believing (ὁ μὴ πιστεύων). The point is qualitative distinction, not outcome.

By this we can see that the term “he who does not believe” isn’t necessarily following judgement, their judgement is actually the result of their unbelief. So no perfect tense and present participle doesn’t always infer a sequence of events, it represents a correlation of events which is exactly what is taking place in 1 John 5:1.
I think there's a misunderstanding here. The point isn't that the perfect tense itself dictates causality (tense doesn't do that). The issue is the semantic and syntactical relationship between the substantival participle and the perfect verb. Perfects in Greek carry two inherent components:
  1. Past completed action
  2. Resultant state
Every perfect verb conveys both, but which aspect is foregrounded is context-dependent. In 1 John 5:1, the present participle functions as the subject of the perfect verb. Syntactically, the participle identifies the entity that underwent the completed action. The semantic point is that this perfect ("has been born") is not merely describing an ongoing resultant state of faith, but instead describes a completed action that is ontologically necessary for the present participial state to exist.

The syntactical relationship is the same in John 3:18, but semantically what is foregrounded there is the resultant state of judgment. The perfect κέκριται ("has been judged") emphasizes the completed state: God's judicial verdict over human sin. That "completion" doesn't necessarily mean an event at a single moment; rather, it can point to the ongoing consequences of humanity's fallen condition, which is rooted in Adam's sin and the natural hostility of the unregenerate toward God (Rom. 5:12; Eph. 2:1-3). So the judgment can still be linked to the prior ontological reality of the sinner's inherent unbelief and moral culpability. What the participle does is describe the ongoing manifestation of that state. John's focus contextually is on the present unbelief as the evidence and lived experience of that judgment.

1 John 2:29 reinforces the point about 5:1. John employs the same grammatical construction -- almost the identical phrase -- only substituting ὁ ποιῶν τὴν δικαιοσύνην ("everyone who practices righteousness") for "everyone who believes." This is a repeated grammatical pattern in 1 John; he's deliberately making a point with it. So whatever interpretation is applied to 5:1 must be applied consistently to 2:29. Even if one were to grant your point regarding John 3:18, it does not alter John's consistent usage in 1 John. Can anyone truly practice righteousness prior to being born again, or is such practice necessarily a consequence of the new birth?

1 John 4:7 provides another example. The text reads, "whoever loves (πᾶς ὁ ἀγαπῶν) has been born (γεγέννηται) of God." If this were taken to mean that those who love are consequently born again, then we encounter a problem: how are we defining "love"? If it is meant generically, then every human would be born again, since all humans can exercise some form of love. But the context clearly points to Godly love, rooted in fellowship with God. So... can this specific, Godly love exist prior to being born of God? If faith, righteousness, and Godly love are all things humans can exercise prior to regeneration, then what is the purpose of regeneration at all?

In hindsight, I could have stated my argument better in the OP, so I appreciate the pushback. But the underlying point remains valid.

Acts‬ ‭16‬:‭30‬-‭31‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

The jailer wasn’t saved before he believed, he had to believe in order to be saved.
Define "saved." Regeneration is one aspect of the ordo salutis, not the totality of the salvation package. This text describes the outward, experiential moment of salvation (the human response of faith), not the ontological reality of regeneration. There's nothing here contradicting the position that the jailer's belief is the visible fruit of what God has already wrought inwardly.

Same thing with Gal 3:14, Rom. 10:9, 13. Why are you equating "salvation" / "promise" with regeneration?

What this indicates is that Greek tense does not always indicate sequence, context indicates sequence.
Acts 16:30-31, Rom. 10, Gal. 3 are narrative contexts that use aorists to describe how people experience salvation. These show experiential order; they do not settle the ontological question of what makes the human subject able to believe in the first place.
 
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bling

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Part 2:

A human rescuer may not be able to save everyone. Then a person who was actually saved will all the more appreciate being saved. If the burning building wasn't bad enough that the situation was desperate enough to kill most people in it, and then everyone was indeed saved, then the appreciation of being saved would not be as great, because the situation wasn't desperate enough.
This is a “what if” scenario and said “the rescuer (representing God) could just as easily and safely save everyone”, so why is the rescuer who can save everyone not like God?

The person being saved in this scenario will have a natural huge “survivor remorse” anxiety.

Your saying: “Not everyone being saved” show how desperate the situation was and increase the gratitude of those who were saved. BUT you should know the pain you personally caused to know what you were saved from. The really huge issue is the fact God’s Love under your scenario is shown to be weak, since He would show a greater Love by saving everyone.
But the actual condition of men's souls is so sinful in the sight of God, that lake of fire judgment is deserving for all of them. It is only out of God's kindness that He decides to save some of them. And because we realize we could have been justly lost with the rest of mankind, we appreciate being saved all the more. Are you grateful of God saving you when He could have justly and easily left you to your own devices?
We totally agree that everyone deserves to be cast into the lake of fire, but it would be a greater Love to save everyone the same way God saves just a few. My scenario has God with this greater Love saving everyone the same way, since it is up to man to humbly accept or reject God’s Love.
No, because if God did save everyone (as the universalist claims), then sin would not appear so bad as it is. The true condition of the nature of sin in the sight of God is such that it stirs His wrath, and deserves lake of fire judgment. IMO and the way I read scripture, the God-kind of love is seen better in the face of adversity, and the love coming from God for those He saves is ultimately contrasted with the just punishment of wicked people who deserve lake of fire judgment. (Eph. 1:5-6)
Under my scenario not everyone is saved, because lots will refuse God’s Love. By repeatedly refusing God’s Love they are showing they do not like or want that type of Love in other and themselves. They would not be happy in heaven, since heaven has only Godly type Love.

How does your scenario produce more “adversity”, since there are lots of people rejecting God’s Love and doing their own thing in contrast with my scenario?

I can relieve my anxiety over being “saved” while others are lost and also get up close with God’s Love by watching and being part of others being saved (not that I am saving anyone). God can work through me leading others to accepting His Love.

Would it not be easier to see God’s Love working in you and through you saving others, than seeing people going to hell?
No, we are not called upon to love everyone the same. The least commandment to love is, "love your neighbor as yourself." This is a far cry from Jesus' command to His disciples, "love one another as I have loved you." For unbelievers who insult, persecute, and abuse us, we are to pray for them and do good to them. But for believers who we must fellowship with, we are to reconcile with them. We are not called to reconcile with unbelievers. Therefore to claim we are called to love everyone the same is a false conclusion. "God causes the sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the righteous and the unrighteous" does not mean that God loves everyone the same. There are many circumstances that God sets up that are the same circumstances for everyone, but there are supernatural events which God performs only for some people He favors.
Interesting!

Who did Christ not Love?

As disciples of Christ why would His command to His disciples at the time not also apply to us to us: “Love other as I have Loved you?

When Jesus was asked: “Who is my neighbor”, He picked someone the Jews really hated with a passion a Samaritan. My understanding of the time says: the Jews hated the Samaritans more than they hated other Gentiles.

Could God’s or Christ’s Love be greater if it stops at some point?
It is God's prerogative. He does not have a reason outside of Himself. He does not look to people to "find out" who is "worthy" of His love. He doesn't look to a person's "humility" to determine if He is going to save that person or not. It begs the question, "how much humility is needed to cause God to save me?" The answer is clear - I can't cause God to save me, because I'm not in control of it. If I keep on thinking I'm in control of it, then I don't have enough humility to be saved. Therefore, to be assured of my salvation, I must rely on God's promises and trust Him 100% that He will save me as He promised. It's all I can do. It's not according to "my free will" but according to God's promise that I believe in. If I believe the gospel, that God has control and will save me from my plight (through Christ) as He promised, then I am assured by scripture that I am already born again. "Enough humility" is a spiritual fruit, and is the result of regeneration, not the cause.
You say: “to be assured of my salvation” and then go on to say: “ I must rely on God's promises and trust Him 100% that He will save me as He promised”, but God has not promised to “save” anyone who is lost right now. You cannot say to a nonbeliever, “you can be saved”, since you do not know that. You can say: “You will be saved if God chose to save you”.

How are you personally certain of your salvation?

The only amount of humility you need is enough to humbly accept God’s help/charity/Love/forgiveness/grace/mercy as Charity.
According to Rom. 3:11, Titus 3:5, 1 Jn. 5:1 and elsewhere, no one accepts God's love by trusting in Christ, until God regenerates them.
Romans 3: 9-11 is Paul trying to explain how prior to becoming a Christian, both Jews and Gentiles are equal in that they are both big time sinners. I am not talking about an unregenerated sinner doing anything positive listed in Romans 3:9-11. They are not seeking God their enemy, being righteous, they do not know what it is to be regenerated, they are turned away, this selfish act they will do is not “sinless” (good or worthy).

Titus 3: 5 “he saved us, not because of righteous things we had done…” RIGHT. It is not righteous to selfishly accept undeserved charity.

1 Jn. 5:1Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves the father loves his child as well.

Right believing that Jesus is the Christ comes after regeneration, but humbly accept God’s pure undeserved charity comes before regeneration. This verse is not saying anything about accepting God’s Love/charity, but talks about Loving God.
If a person refuses God's love, then they don't know God, and would not likely be happy in heaven, because they remain self-centered and following after the lusts of the flesh. Heaven (the future kingdom) will not contain any such person. Everyone desperately needs God's love, but refuses it, because they love the pleasure of sin more than they love God. There may be people who in some ways do not believe in God's love per se, yet are saved, and show it in other ways.
OK
If God was grieved that He made man (Gen. 6:6), then He must have had some level of love for them, especially since He waited patiently for them to start calling on His name (ref. Gen. 4:26 & 1 Pet. 3:20). Just as there is a "common grace" in which mankind as a whole receive the benefit of God's grace, there is a "special grace" that God bestows on some. So God has a "common love" for people in general, but also has a "special love" for certain people of His choosing. Jesus also loved Judas to some extent, in a general sort of way, even though He knew Judas was "a devil." God loves people enough to have patience with them, but His patience runs out eventually to the point in which He exacts His justice on them, Rom. 9:22 and 2 Thes. 1:8.
There is no logical reason for God to have different “Loves” grace for people that are totally the same.
Indeed there is a contrast in our testimony of "before and after" conversion. But I was talking about the contrast between those judged at the "great white throne" judgment and those accepted into the kingdom; between those receiving justice and those receiving grace; between the "sheep and the goats," between the wheat and the tares. We who are saved from the plight of man can appreciate salvation more, when we realize we could have easily and justly been left alone on the wide path to destruction. "But God, being rich in mercy, with the great love with which He loved us..."
You say: “I was talking about the contrast between those judged at the "great white throne" judgment… between those receiving justice and those receiving grace”

Is God not perfectly just and perfectly Loving (gracious)? Some accept His “grace” in the form of forgiveness and since there is no punishment for forgiven sins all receive perfect justice.

Where are you finding in scripture God not be just?
I feel sad about those lost, but I don't have any "survivor remorse," because I realize that God would have been perfectly just to have left me alone to my own sinful devices. I'm sad for a nephew who once was said to believe (likely out of fear and religious abuse), but is now an atheist. I feel sad for anyone who is lost, but I can't do anything about that, except what God has called me to do. So I look forward to an eternity of paradise with God, and try to love people as best I can according to how I read the Bible.
Survivor remorse is much more than feeling sad and comes you being saved when others just likely you in the same situation are lost or even hurt.

Obviously you are not charged up to allow the Spirit to work through you to provide the best information to the lost so they can be humble, like Peter did on Pentecost.
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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John 12:20 doesn’t indicate that Jesus was not referring to all men.
Where did I say Jesus wasn't referring to "all men"? What do you mean by "all men"?

I defined what "all" means in its immediate literary and redemptive-historical context, which is all men, just not individually. John explicitly introduces the approach of "some Greeks" as the catalyst for Jesus' declaration that "the hour has come" (v. 23). The Gentiles' arrival signals that the redemptive mission is expanding beyond Israel, which is precisely why Jesus now speaks of being "lifted up" to draw "all" -- that is, not just Jews.

So what are you objecting to? The claim isn't that Jesus was referring only to Gentiles. The claim is that the Gentile inclusion frames the scope of "all." The contrast is between "Israel alone" and "all nations." It's an "all men without distinction in kind," not an "all men without exception."

If πάντας meant "every individual without exception," then the statement would entail universal salvation. Jesus says, "I will draw all men to myself." ἑλκύω conveys an effective movement toward its goal, not a mere invitation.

No further engagement with my comments on John 6:44 or 12:32? Before we begin a round of "what about this verse," we should establish whether those passages have been adequately addressed. Skipping over arguments already presented doesn't advance your case. Certainly you're not suggesting that texts like Ezekiel 33:11 and 2 Peter 3:9 contradict John 6:44? Yet if you ignore the arguments already presented, your position amounts to suggesting as much. So can you demonstrate exegetically how your interpretation of those verses coheres with John's teaching there?

What do you do with Ezekiel 33:11 in this context?
I'll comment briefly on this and your other citations below. I won't go into much detail until after we get some engagement on comments I've already offered on John 6:44.

God's delight in repentance does not imply human ability to repent apart from grace. The verse expresses God's moral will (His preceptive desire) that sinners turn and live, not His decretive will of election.

This is a parallel passage to 2 Peter 3:9
Again, preceptive/decretive distinction.

But also note: who is Peter addressing? "The beloved" (v. 1), whom he specifically contrasts with "the scoffers" (v. 3). When he says, "God is being patient toward you," the pronoun "you" (vv. 1-2, 8-9) is contextually distinct from "them" (3-5). The patience he describes is for the purpose of granted time for repentance, but that patience is directed specifically to "you" (μακροθυμεῖ εἰς ὑμᾶς), not to all humanity indiscriminately.

If God's patience were truly universal, one could question why Christ would ever return, since greater patience could always save more. But if the patience is directed to the elect scattered abroad ("you," "the beloved"), then the timing of His return is coherent: it occurs as soon as the last of the elect come to faith, fulfilling the purpose of that patience.

πᾶς ("all") and τὶς ("anyone") carry semantic range that must be interpreted by context. The Greek does not automatically imply every individual without exception; rather, these terms indicate the full scope of a defined group. In 2 Pet. 3:9, they are applied to those already addressed as "the beloved," not to the scoffers. μακροθυμεῖ ("he is patient") is directed εἰς ὑμᾶς ("toward you"), with the participle μὴ βουλόμενός ("not wishing") modifying that patience, and everything following it functioning as the object of his willing. In this context, τινας and πάντας are therefore understood as referring specifically to members of the beloved group (i.e., any and all of them), the scope of God's patience, not to every individual universally. What matters is what the Greek conveys in its syntactical and contextual frame, not merely the connotations of our modern English usage.

Romans 2:4-5 also supports this context.
Notice that Paul is addressing those under judgment (vv. 1-3), and the passage emphasizes the temporal effect of God's patience (giving time for repentance, not universal salvific intent). The "you" in v. 4 is limited by context, just as in 2 Pet. 3:9. It does not mean God's patience is directed to every human without distinction; it is directed toward those whom God has determined to call in time, so that the exercise of repentance occurs in its proper moment.

The "desire" here is not universal salvific intent. θέλω in context is subordinate to God's overarching purposes: to display His justice and glory. Paul is talking about vessels prepared for destruction (κατηρτισμένα εἰς ἀπώλειαν), not the elect or those who will be saved. The patience is tied to God's sovereign plan for the sake of showing His glory, not an indication that all these vessels might actually repent.

I look forward to your comments on John 6:44.
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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It is improper to place the time of action of present participles after the time of action of the main verb. You have wriggled around on this point, arguing both that time sequence is not involved and that it could be contiguous (forgive me if I don't remember your exact words). The fact is, you are arguing that faith in Christ comes after salvation. And it does not matter how many Scriptures I quote or reference that point to God saving those who believe, you always find some way to say those verses support your POV.
Your engagement in this discussion has been more assertive and accusatory than substantive interaction with anything I've actually laid out. If this conversation is to be productive, I would ask that your further comments focus on engaging the argument and the textual evidence directly.

Regarding your claim that "it is improper to place the time of action of present participles after the time of action of the main verb," I already answered this in posts #12 and #17. You did not meaningfully engage with either element of that answer. What I originally pointed out to you was that this principle you're wanting to invoke (that "present participles have the same time of action as the main verb," to use your original wording) is basically true in narrative or temporal discourse, but not in gnomic or didactic statements. It's pretty obvious why: in gnomic contexts, the main verb itself isn't describing a point in time. It expresses a timeless, axiomatic reality. That's what a gnomic/didactic statement is. So, when you universalize the rule, you're trying to attach a "time of action" to something that doesn't have one. It's like timing a definition with a stopwatch.

Additionally, from your "response" in post #15 until now, you have continued to introduce this confusion between logical relationship and temporal sequence. The OP itself distinguishes the two, clarifying that this isn't an argument for temporal sequence. You either missed or ignored that. I corrected you on it in post #17 when you misrepresented my position as concerning a chronological sequence of events. You ignored that too. Now, you're still ignoring it. You're caricaturing the argument to fit the objection you want to give. Do you understand the difference between logical and chronological relationships?

Another gnomic example (just one of many we could go to):

1 Peter 2:6 - "...the one believing (ὁ πιστεύων, present participle) in Him will not be put to shame (καταισχυνθῇ, aorist subjunctive)."​
The present participle describes the defining mark of those characterized by faith; the aorist subjunctive expresses the logical result of that: ultimate eschatological vindication. If the participle's "time" equals the main verb's, we're left with the nonsensical idea that one "believes" at the moment in time one "is not put to shame," as if faith occurs only simultaneously with final vindication.

You have wriggled around on this point
I have not "wriggled around" on this point; my position has been consistent from the OP, as I've pointed out to you more than once. Go back and read it. The argument is that 1 John 5:1 expresses a logical, not temporal relationship between regeneration and faith. You're not addressing the point by repeatedly recasting it as a chronological objection.

arguing both that time sequence is not involved and that it could be contiguous
You're not stating what problem you see here. These mean essentially the same thing. If two things occur simultaneously, there's no sequence in time. When I said that regeneration and faith may occur simultaneously in our temporal experience (as I noted in the OP to begin with), it was in response to your repeated discussion of temporal sequences. The point I was making is that timing is irrelevant to the argument. I am not making a chronological claim. My point from the start has been about logical priority, not temporal sequence. Nothing I have said contradicts that, so your claim that I'm arguing both ways is a misunderstanding of my position.

The fact is, you are arguing that faith in Christ comes after salvation.
You are not reading my posts.

In post #17, I originally challenged this "faith after salvation" caricature of my argument by asking you directly: "Where have I argued for 'believing after salvation'?" You did not answer.

Instead, you simply doubled down on the caricature in your next reply, suggesting that I am "rearranging" grammar "to say that trust in Christ does not come before salvation" (my emphasis).

In post #30, I pointed out that you did not address my question. I then explained the reason for asking it, and how your wording misunderstands/misrepresents my position. You did not answer or acknowledge.

Instead, in your next reply, you went right back to the language of temporal experience ("you are arguing for a reality that we do not experience"), continuing to ignore my repeated clarifications that the argument doesn't concern the question of temporal experience.

In post #36, I again pointed out your category confusion on this. No acknowledgement.

Instead, in your next reply, you shifted course entirely and took a personal experience approach, suggesting that you know my theology is off because your "alarm bells are going off." You chose not to engage at all with the content of my rebuttal to you.

Then, in verse #67, again, you repeat your caricature of my position: "there is no way to change the truth that God forgives sins and gives spiritual life to those who believe. It's not the other way around." (My emphasis). We're debating the logical priority of regeneration and faith, not the forgiveness of sins (justification).

And guess what? You've now done it again! "The fact is, you are arguing that faith in Christ comes after salvation." False. That is not what I am arguing. I am arguing that faith in Christ is logically subsequent to regeneration, not justification, final salvation, or the whole package. If you can't be honest about what it is I'm even saying, we have nothing to discuss.

you always find some way to say those verses support your POV
I mean, they do. What more do you want me to say? You refuse to engage the content of my arguments in any meaningful attempt to show exegetically where I've erred. Do you expect me to just let you win a debate?
 
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BNR32FAN

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We need to be precise about what kind of believing you mean. Superficial assent is not saving faith. Luke 8:13 describes hearers who "received the word with joy" but "have no firm root." That's the language of a "belief" that is superficial and non-saving. That's precisely why Jesus gives the parable; He's distinguishing outward professions from inward, abiding faith.

We also need to be precise about what you mean by "ability." There are two kinds. Everyone has the natural, cognitive ability to assent to a proposition (e.g., "that might be true"), and some can even be emotionally moved to confess belief for a time. That is not the same as the spiritual ability to embrace Christ as Lord and live on that basis. Asserting that natural man has that ability is a contradiction of John 6:44; 1 Cor. 2:14; Rom. 8:7-8.
ok so what about Simon Magus in Acts 8? The passage doesn’t differentiate any difference between his belief and the rest of the people who believed. And you quoted 1 Corinthians 2:14 when Paul wrote that in reference to the behavior of the Corinthians in chapter 3. If you read the next 6 verses you’ll see that. Luke 8:13 is just describing and example that Jesus often spoke of which was some believers will turn away. That’s why we have passages like John 15:1-7 and Matthew chapter 10 and 2 Timothy 2:11-13. In Matthew 10 Jesus was telling the 12 not to fall away in times of tribulation and in 2 Timothy 2:11-13 Paul was telling Timothy the same thing. Both Jesus and Paul expressed real consequences for falling away. But the one who endures to the end will be saved. Do not fear those who are able to kill the body but are unable to kill the soul. Fear Him who is able to destroy both soul and body in hell. If we deny Him, He will deny us. That statement right there is written about two true believers. So if Paul and Jesus taught the doctrines of TULIP why aren’t they applying those doctrinal aspects to these statements? Oh and the same can be said about James 5:19-20.
 
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BNR32FAN

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That's not how aspect works. The present participle ὁ μὴ πιστεύων ("the one not believing") describes one's present, ongoing state of unbelief, not their past or future category. John contrasts two groups as they now stand: those believing (ὁ πιστεύων) and those not believing (ὁ μὴ πιστεύων). The point is qualitative distinction, not outcome.
But is their unbelief the result of them being judged already? That’s the point of quoting the passage? Is the tense of the verbs dictating sequence?
 
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BNR32FAN

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Define "saved." Regeneration is one aspect of the ordo salutis, not the totality of the salvation package. This text describes the outward, experiential moment of salvation (the human response of faith), not the ontological reality of regeneration. There's nothing here contradicting the position that the jailer's belief is the visible fruit of what God has already wrought inwardly.

Same thing with Gal 3:14, Rom. 10:9, 13. Why are you equating "salvation" / "promise" with regeneration?
Would the jailer have been saved if he didn’t believe? The passage specifically states that in order for the jailer to be saved he must first believe. You’re saying that the jailer was already saved before he believed which is not what the passage says at all.
 
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BNR32FAN

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Acts 16:30-31, Rom. 10, Gal. 3 are narrative contexts that use aorists to describe how people experience salvation. These show experiential order; they do not settle the ontological question of what makes the human subject able to believe in the first place.
But they do in fact clearly indicate that verb tense doesn’t imply sequence which is what you’re whole argument is based on.
 
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Dikaioumenoi

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So you’re saying that verse 32 in John 12 is in reference to verse 20 but not verse 25 and 26?

“He who loves his life loses it, and he who hates his life in this world will keep it to life eternal. If anyone serves Me, he must follow Me; and where I am, there My servant will be also; if anyone serves Me, the Father will honor him.”
‭‭John‬ ‭12‬:‭25‬-‭26‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

I don’t see why you’re making that connection. It seems to me that verses 35-36 correlate more to verses 25-26 than verse 20.

“So Jesus said to them, “For a little while longer the Light is among you. Walk while you have the Light, so that darkness will not overtake you; he who walks in the darkness does not know where he goes. While you have the Light, believe in the Light, so that you may become sons of Light.” These things Jesus spoke, and He went away and hid Himself from them.”
‭‭John‬ ‭12‬:‭35‬-‭36‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

Verse 32 sits between verses 25 and 36 which are directly related to coming to Christ.
The connection to verse 20 doesn't exclude verses 25-26 or 35-36. It explains what triggered the entire discourse. The arrival of the Greeks in verse 20 is the narrative catalyst:

"Now among those who went up to worship at the feast were some Greeks. So these came to Philip... and asked him, 'Sir, we wish to see Jesus.'" (John 12:20-21)​
John deliberately isolates this event: "Now there were some Greeks..." (δὲ marks a narrative transition). He draws attention to them as a separate narrative unit before Jesus speaks again. The significance of it is that this is the first explicit mention of Gentiles seeking Jesus in John's Gospel. Up to this point, Jesus' ministry has been almost entirely within Israel. There had been occasional foreshadowings of Gentile inclusion (e.g., John 4:42), but this is the first time Gentiles are physically present and requesting audience with Jesus.

Jesus "answers them" (ἀποκρίνεται αὐτοῖς) in verse 23, saying, "The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified." The Greeks' arrival is what provokes this declaration. It is the event that marks the shift from "My hour has not yet come" (2:4; 7:30; 8:20) to "The hour has come" (12:23). So the arrival of these Gentiles signifies the transition from a Jewish-restricted mission to a universal one. Everything that follows Jesus' declaration in v. 23 unfolds as His theological exposition of this turning point.

Verses 25-26 develop the implications of His glorification (the necessity of death leading to life), while verse 32 gives its climactic significance: He being "lifted up" will effect a drawing of all kinds of people: Jew and Gentile alike, not Jew only. That's why John mentions the Greeks at all. They are the narrative signal that the redemptive focus is expanding beyond Israel.

The logic of the discourse is:

vv. 20-23 - The Greeks arrive --> "the hour has come."
vv. 24-26 - The principle of life through death (the grain of wheat).
vv. 27-33 - The meaning of Christ's death: the cross as the means of universal (not Jewish-only) gospel appeal.
vv. 35-36 - The closing exhortation: believe in the Light while it is among you.

The meaning of "draws" (ἑλκύω) and the scope of those drawn are not determined by the exhortation. In this context, the verb concerns the inclusion of all kinds of people; that is, kinds without distinction, not individuals without exception. Jesus is announcing the ingathering of both Jews and Gentiles into one redeemed people, not the universal salvation (or attempt at it) of every individual. Moreover, the semantic core of ἑλκύω is forceful or powerful, not merely inviting. The core idea it expresses is the decisive movement from one state or sphere to another. Thus, when Jesus declares, "I will draw all people to myself," He is not describing a mere attempt to persuade; He is proclaiming the certain efficacy of His redemptive work: the power of the cross to extend through the gospel to all nations and to bring people of every kind to genuine faith in Him. If that "drawing" is taken to refer to individuals without exception, the text would be teaching universalism.
 
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