The History of the “Two Laws” Theory in Romans 3:20

[Hentenza]

Sounds like the same ones according to Jesus (Mat5:17-30, Mat19:17-19 Mark2:27 Isa 66:23 Mat15:3-14 Mark7:7-13)

Revelation 22:14 Blessed are those who do His commandments, that they may have the right to the tree of life, and may enter through the gates into the city. 15 But outside are dogs and sorcerers (Breaking commandment #1 Exodus 20:3) and sexually immoral (breaking commandment #7 Exodus 20:14) and murderers (breaking commandment #6 Exodus 20:13) and idolaters (breaking commandment #2 Exodus 20:4-6), and whoever loves and practices a lie (breaking # 9 Exodus 20:16 or any of the commandments 1 John 2:4) Breaking one we break them all James 2:11-12 Exo 20:1-17 .

Yep. Same ones that I debunked in this thread and in the other thread. Old tired argument based on verse mining and using OT verses as if they apply yo the NC when they do not. You are my sister in Christ but I will debunk arguments that attempt to put the monkey of the bondage of the law back in the Christian. Scripture is clear that the Christian is not under the law.

 

[SabbathBlessings]

Yep. Same ones that I debunked in this thread and in the other thread. Old tired argument based on verse mining and using OT verses as if they apply yo the NC when they do not. You are my sister in Christ but I will debunk arguments that attempt to put the monkey of the bondage of the law back in the Christian. Scripture is clear that the Christian is not under the law.

These are all thus saith the Lords. It’s not me you’re trying to debunk. You have this backwards, Bondage is sin, keeping God’s commandments is freedom from sin, why it’s called the law of liberty James 2:11-12 . Can you imagine if everyone would be keeping the Ten Commandments the way Jesus taught Mat 5:19-30 no more adultery, no more murder, we could leave our doors unlocked, only worshipping the Creator, no more using God’s name in vain, sadly we will only see this in the New heaven and New Earth where the Sabbath also continues, thus saith the Lord Isa 66:23. Its sad that people think coming before the Lord on His holy Sabbath day to worship with other Christians as Jesus and the apostles did Luke 4:16 Acts 15:21 Acts 13:42 Acts 13:44 Acts 18:4 and continues in heaven is bondage. It’s why I believe God’s law is one of love and His Judgement is as well, as not everyone would be happy without sin in heaven. John 3:19-21 He would never force anyone to do things they would be miserable or thinking its bondage.

 

[Hentenza]

until you read the New Covenant in Jer 31:31-33 and Heb 8 "I will make a NEW Covenant.. this IS the Covenant.. I will write MY LAW on their heart and mind..."

Turns out... God's Law is there.

"what matters is KEEPING the Commandments of God" 1 Cor 1:19
"this IS the LOVE of God that we KEEP His Commandments" 1 John 5:3-4
"saints KEEP the Commandments of God and their faith in Jesus" Rev 14:12
where "Honor your father and mother .. is the first commandment with a promise" Eph 6:1-2

The commandments of Jesus in the new covenant are 2 commandments that summarize and take over the whole law. The 613 Jewish laws including the 10 commandments was fulfilled by Christ sacrifice in the cross. The terms of the old contract have been met and exceeded by Christ. The new covenant has new and different terms. The Christian is not under the law.

Jer 31 says "I will write My Law" on their heart and mind.

The audience here is the Jewish people not the Christians.

Deut 5:22 says God wrote the TEN "and added no more".

The audience here is the Jewish people not the Christians.

Jeremiah's readers knew full well that one cannot delete the Ten Commandments from the term "the Law of God" or the "Commandments of God"

Like I stated the Jeremiah’s audience was the Jewish people not the Christians.

How so?

“Now the women who had come with Him from Galilee followed, and they saw the tomb and how His body was laid. And then they returned and prepared spices and perfumes. And on the Sabbath they rested according to the commandment.”
‭‭Luke‬ ‭23‬:‭55‬-‭56‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬

Luke 23:55-56 Now the women who had come with Him from Galilee followed, and they saw the tomb and how His body was laid. And then they returned and prepared spices and perfumes. A nd on the Sabbath they rested acc | New American Standard Bible - NAS

Now the women who had come with Him from Galilee followed, and they saw the tomb and how His body was laid. And then they returned and prepared spices and perfumes. A nd on the Sabbath they rested acc

bible.com

Jesus was crucified and buried before the sabbath began. The women brought the spices and perfume before the sabbath and then rested on the sabbath. Jesus resurrection was on the first day not in the seventh therefore He had not yet completed ushered in the new covenant.

John 6 says Jesus is the bread yet we still have real bread. One thing can be used as a symbol for something else without deleting the primary purpose of it.

That does not follow that the new covenant includes the terms of the old covenant. Each contract has their own terms. When Jesus fulfilled the old covenant He issued a new covenant with different terms.

Is 66:23 "from one Sabbath to another shall all mankind come before Me to worship" is what God says for that future day after the cross, after the church during the "New Heavens and New Earth" ,... for all eternity.

Again, the audience here is the Jewish people. The Jewish people are still under the law including the sabbath so the verse is correct. Think about it for one minute, if you argue that the 4th commandment as stated in the law is still in force then the vast majority if Christians in the new covenant are breaking God’s commandment, even the most pious. In light of this do you think that promoting the law is biblically logical?

So then EVERY time in the New Testament that we see Paul preaching the Gospel in a worship service called "Sabbath" it is the Bible Sabbath of Gen 2:3. In fact "every Sabbath" preaching in Acts 18:4 is specifically every seventh day Sabbath.

Yes, for the purpose of preaching the gospel if Christ.

“To the Jews I became as a Jew, so that I might gain Jews; to those who are under the Law, I became as one under the Law, though not being under the Law myself, so that I might gain those who are under the Law;”
‭‭1 Corinthians‬ ‭9‬:‭20‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬

1 Corinthians 9:20 To the Jews I became as a Jew, so that I might gain Jews; to those who are under the Law, I became as one under the Law, though not being under the Law myself, so that I might gain those who are under | New American Standard Bible

To the Jews I became as a Jew, so that I might gain Jews; to those who are under the Law, I became as one under the Law, though not being under the Law myself, so that I might gain those who are under

bible.com

Food for thought. The Lords day was established by Jesus resurrection on the first day. But did you also know that every single appearance post crucifixion was also on the first day? Christ is just awesome.

Also I want to challenge you to find a single verse in the NT post crucifixion that commands the Christian to keep the Jewish sabbath.

 

[Hentenza]

These are all thus saith the Lords. It’s not me you’re trying to debunk.

Is your interpretation that I have debunked not the Lord’s.

 

[RandyPNW]

You still have not posted one verse that says this is the covenant I will make with Gentiles. The covenant through Abraham (the father of Jews) was with Israel.

With all due respect I did provide you with the biblical passage stating that God's covenant with Abraham would include (at some point) the nations. The "Gentiles" = "the nations." Genesis 17. Please don't tell others I did not give you a single verse when I gave you Gen 17.

If you do not think the Sabbath was part of the promise, than I guess this promise is not for you.

The Sabbath Law was given to the family of Abraham prior to the work of Christ. As such, it became part of the Old Covenant, which was preparatory for Christ.

That Covenant combined moral law with ceremonial law, anticipating the work of Christ. That Covenant expired at the death of Christ, whose work supplants and fulfilled that Law, which exhibited and recorded Israel's failed human record of sin.

It did this to show that the entire human race has a failed human record and is guilty of sin, preventing us from obtaining life by our own works, ceremonies, and morality. Apart from Christ, Man cannot therefore obtain Eternal Life. Under the New Covenant we obey Christ's word, and none other.

 

[SabbathBlessings]

With all due respect I did provide you with the biblical passage stating that God's covenant with Abraham would include (at some point) the nations. The "Gentiles" = "the nations." Genesis 17. Please don't tell others I did not give you a single verse when I gave you Gen 17.

Through the blood of Abraham the father of Jews . The covenant itself was made with Israel both the first one and the new covenant . Deut 4:13 Heb8:10 Still never addressed where God made a covenant directly with Gentiles.

The Sabbath Law was given to the family of Abraham prior to the work of Christ. As such, it became part of the Old Covenant, which was preparatory for Christ.

That Covenant combined moral law with ceremonial law, anticipating the work of Christ. That Covenant expired at the death of Christ, whose work supplants and fulfilled that Law, which exhibited and recorded Israel's failed human record of sin.

It did this to show that the entire human race has a failed human record and is guilty of sin, preventing us from obtaining life by our own works, ceremonies, and morality. Apart from Christ, Man cannot therefore obtain Eternal Life. Under the New Covenant we obey Christ's word, and none other.

Non responsive to the Scripture posted.

 

[Studyman]

Let’s walk through this carefully and show that Paul was not parsing or redefining the Law, but explaining its purpose and function within God’s covenant plan.

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1. Paul did not “parse” the Law — he explained its place in salvation history​

Galatians 3:17–19 is often misunderstood. Paul says:

This entire religious philosophy promoted here is brought into question by Jesus Himself, in the "Laws" of God HE Humbled Himself to obey, unto death. Jesus walked in ALL God's Commandments, Honored and Respected His Father in "ALL" of His Father's Judgments. He is said to have never transgressed any God's Law at any time from His youth to His Death.

Do you believe this?

The Foundation of this World's religious philosophy that you are promoting, is founded on the belief that the entire "LAW" from 1st and Greatest Commandment of God, to the LAW requiring a man to bring a Goat to the Levite Priest for remission of Sins, is "ONE" Law. And if ONE part of the Law becomes old and ready to vanish, then the entire Law vanishes. That is your teaching here, Yes?

But Jesus' Life itself, brings question to this doctrine. Jesus forgave Sins and was a Priest of God, but "NEVER" sprinkled the Blood of even ONE Goat or turtle dove on the alter in the Temple, in His Entire Ministry on earth, even though this Law existed, Commanded by God Himself to Moses.

Why is this? Why did Jesus follow all His Father's Commandments, Sabbaths, judgments concerning clean and unclean, HE even followed God's Laws concerning stone the adulterous woman, right to the Letter. If what you are saying is truth, then Jesus was guilty of Transgressing His Father's Commandment concerning the Priest's duty to provide for the forgiveness of sins, through the sacrifices of the Levitical Priesthood Law.

The Pharisees, who were "Bewitching the Galatians", didn't believe Jesus was the Prophesied Messiah that Moses spoke about in Duet. 18. They were still promoting their version of the Levitical Priesthood "Works of the Law" for Justification. This is simply undeniable Biblical Truth.

One of the questions I asked you, that you refused to answer, was "What Law" existed in the Old Priesthood, that was required before a man's sins could be forgiven? I know you know the answer, but you can't say it, that is fascinating to me, as it is the exact same response given by the mainstream preachers of Jesus Time. I don't mean that as an insult, but you do know the answer to the question, yet you refuse to answer.

In Paul's Time, a man who committed adultery was still guilty of Sin and required repentance and atonement before Salvation. Even after God's Prophesied High Priest "After the Order of Melchizedek" had come, this LAW was still required, and had to be repented from, as Jesus Himself Teaches, "I tell you, Nay: but, except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish".

Let me ask you another question and see if you will answer. Was God's Laws still in effect for Ananias and Sapphira "After the SEED had come"?

Let me ask another question, and see if you will answer. The Church of God at Pentecost, did they receive the Spirit of God because they took a goat to the Levite Priest and kill it for the remission of their sins? And yet they had counted 7 Sabbaths after Feast of Unleavened bread so as to be gathered together on God's Holy Day? Why did they Obey God concerning His Statutes, but not the Law of Works required by the Levitical Priesthood, "Till the SEED should Come"?

Abraham was given the Law of Adultery, even Abimelech knew of God's definition of Sin, and Moses also gave this Law to Israel who had lost sight of God in Egypt.

This LAW wasn't "ADDED" 430 years after Abraham because of Transgressions. God's Laws define sin, they weren't "ADDED" because of Sin.

Consider the foolishness of this popular philosophy. Where there is no Law, there is no Sin. And yet you are preaching to the world that God's entire "LAW", Was "ADDED" "because of Sin" which is defined by God as "Transgression of God's Law". How can there be transgression of a Law that hasn't been "ADDED" Yet?

There was a "LAW" added though, according to Paul. A "temporary Law" that the Pharisees were still promoting to the Galatians, concerning "Works of the Law" required before justification. A Law Abraham didn't have, and wasn't "ADDED" (Add to what?) unto 430 years after God said Abraham "obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws., and wasn't "Added" in the day God led Israel out of Egypt, but was ADDED, (to what?) because of Transgressions (Of What) and was only to be in Place until the Prophesied Priest of God should Come, who would offer His Own Life (Blood) to God, for the remission of Sins that are past.

This is why I asked you the question, but you refused to answer, "What Law was given to Moses to provide for the forgiveness of Sin, until the Prophesied Priest, "After the Order of Melchizedek" should come. A Law that the Pharisees were still promoting to the Galatians, just as they did in Isaiah 1.

I too, really want to walk through this topic slowly and carefully with you. But I'm not going to be preached down to by you. Lets have an open honest discussion answering and asking each other questions in search of Biblical Truth. The Scriptures will correct us and Lead us to God's Truth, as Paul teaches if we are seeking truth.

I am happy to address the rest of your post, but one at a time. I see you don't ask questions, or answer them, you just preach your own philosophy which you are clearly zealous for. Why not have an actual discussion in search of God's Truth.

 

[RandyPNW]

Jesus said He came not to destroy the law, not a jot or tittle will pass from the law, My covenant I will not alter Psa 89:34 that does not equate to Jesus changed the law, it says the opposite. The summary of God’s law does not delete the details.

False. Jesus did not say he came to repeat or to perpetuate the Law in its then-current form. On the contrary, in saying he came to "fulfill the Law" he indicated he would become the new priesthood, temple, and sacrifice in order to complete what the Law could not finish, namely the full redemption of Israel.

When he said "until heaven passes away" he meant that the integrity of the Law was established as firmly as the heavens, and that the testimony of that Law to Christ would remain forever emblazened upon the structure of our universe. It was an eternal testimony to God's faithfulness to bring about Israel's salvation.

It is its *testimony* to Christ as its fulfillment that would remain until the end of the current universe--not the Old Covenant in its then-current form. If you think Christ meant to perpetuate the old priesthood, temple, and sacrifices, you are gravely mistaken!

 

[SabbathBlessings]

False. Jesus did not say he came to repeat or to perpetuate the Law in its then-current form. On the contrary, in saying he came to "fulfill the Law" he indicated he would become the new priesthood, temple, and sacrifice in order to complete what the Law could not finish, namely the full redemption of Israel.

I do not see any of what you said here in what Jesus said Mat 5:17-30. The Law Jesus is speaking of is not the law of Moses that was placed outside the Ten Commandments Deut 31:24-31 that dealt with the priesthood, temple and sacrifices- lets stay in context to what Jesus is saying

You claim Jesus did not come to repeat God’s law, but yet what did He repeat in this very passage and many others?

Mat 5:21 “You have heard that it was said to those [d]of old, ‘You shall not murder, and whoever murders will be in danger of the judgment.’

And went on to say not only should we not literally murder our brother, we should not have thoughts that lead to anger that is the root cause for thou shalt not murder. And in doing so one would be in danger of sin and judgement

22 But I say to you that whoever is angry with his brother [e]without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment. And whoever says to his brother, ‘Raca!’[f] shall be in danger of the council. But whoever says,[g]‘You fool!’ shall be in danger of [h]hell fire. 23 Therefore if you bring your gift to the altar, and there remember that your brother has something against you, 24 leave your gift there before the altar, and go your way. First be reconciled to your brother, and then come and offer your gift. 25 Agree with your adversary quickly, while you are on the way with him, lest your adversary deliver you to the judge, the judge hand you over to the officer, and you be thrown into prison.26 Assuredly, I say to you, you will by no means get out of there till you have paid the last penny.

Jesus came to magnify the law Isa 42:21 as in the example Jesus just gave, magnify means to make greater, not lesser or remove. He is dealing with both the outward part- thou shalt not murder and the inward part- a change of heart, from anger to compassion, principles that apply to all Ten Mat5:19

When he said "until heaven passes away" he meant that the integrity of the Law was established as firmly as the heavens, and that the testimony of that Law to Christ would remain forever emblazened upon the structure of our universe. It was an eternal testimony to God's faithfulness to bring about Israel's salvation.

I do not see any of that in this plain passage. I am not sure if you are aware but we are told not to add to God’s Word Pro 30:5-6 because its no longer God’s Word that is sanctifying John 17:17 its our word which is not.

This is what Jesus said:

Mat 5:18 For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled.

I beleive Jesus means exactly what He said, no edits needed. And ALL being fufilled means just that including


Mat 24: 34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.
35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.
36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
37 But as the days of Noah were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.

So not all is fulfilled until Jesus comes in the clouds, He makes a New Heaven and New Earth and all sin and sinners destroyed forever, so therefore not a jot or tittle can pass from God’s laws. Yet alone a whole commandment or two.

Why. . .

Mat 5:19 Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

It is its *testimony* to Christ as its fulfillment that would remain until the end of the current universe--not the Old Covenant in its then-current form. If you think Christ meant to perpetuate the old priesthood, temple, and sacrifices, you are gravely mistaken!

You are confusing the Ten Commandments covenant Deut 4:13 - with the law of Moses Deut 31:24-26. Something one day I pray you will see the difference, it will really help one understand the Bible much clearer. The old sanctuary temple laws under the Levitical Priesthood written in the law of Moses Deut 31:24-26 all ended at the Cross Heb 9:10-15 Heb 10:1-10, the law of God, the Ten Commandments that was revealed at Creation Exo 20:11 continues on forever Rev 22:14 no one is going to be breaking these laws in heaven including the Sabbath Isa 66:23 why not a jot or tittle can pass because no one can edit the Testimony of God Exo 31:18 because there is no man greater than He. Psa 89:34 Mat 5:18

 

[Mercy Shown]

This entire religious philosophy promoted here is brought into question by Jesus Himself, in the "Laws" of God HE Humbled Himself to obey, unto death. Jesus walked in ALL God's Commandments, Honored and Respected His Father in "ALL" of His Father's Judgments. He is said to have never transgressed any God's Law at any time from His youth to His Death.

Do you believe this?

You’re absolutely right that Jesus perfectly obeyed every command of His Father — He “humbled Himself and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross” (Philippians 2:8). He alone kept the Law in its entirety, honoring the Father in thought, word, and deed. But this is exactly why His obedience is our hope and victory, not merely a moral example.

---

1. Christ’s obedience fulfilled the Law we broke​

Jesus Himself said,

“Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to destroy but to fulfill” (Matthew 5:17).

Humanity had broken God’s law and fallen under its curse (Romans 3:23; Galatians 3:10). Because God’s law is holy and unchangeable, the penalty had to be paid. But no human could pay it, for “there is none righteous, no not one” (Romans 3:10).

So Christ, the sinless One, entered our condition and fulfilled every righteous requirement of the law on our behalf(Romans 8:3–4).
His perfect obedience satisfied God’s justice — not by abolishing the law, but by meeting its demands in full.

2. His obedience is counted to us by faith​

Paul explains this clearly in Romans 5:19:

“For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of One shall many be made righteous.”

Christ’s obedience — both in His life and in His death — is imputed (credited) to all who believe. Just as Adam’s sin brought death to all mankind, Christ’s obedience brings righteousness and life to all who trust in Him (Romans 5:17–18).

This is why Paul could say,

“I am found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ — the righteousness which is from God by faith” (Philippians 3:9).

We do not stand before God on the basis of our own obedience, but on the basis of His.

3. Christ’s victory over sin becomes our victory​

Because He obeyed unto death, Jesus triumphed over every power of sin, death, and condemnation.

“Having disarmed principalities and powers, He made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them in it” (Colossians 2:15).

At the cross, He bore the curse of the law (Galatians 3:13) and rose to new life — opening the way for us to share in His victory.
Now, the righteousness He earned is freely given to us, and the Spirit that empowered His obedience now dwells in believers to make that obedience a living reality (Romans 8:1–4).

So our victory does not come from our own flawless commandment-keeping — it flows from His perfect obedience credited to us and reproduced in us by the Spirit.

4. Christ obeyed the Law so that we might be free to love​

Christ’s obedience didn’t make the moral law irrelevant; it fulfilled it and wrote it on our hearts (Jeremiah 31:33; Romans 8:4).
Now, instead of trying to earn righteousness through rule-keeping, we walk by the Spirit — and “the righteous requirement of the law is fulfilled in us who walk not according to the flesh but according to the Spirit” (Romans 8:4).

True obedience now flows from love, not legal obligation:

“We love Him because He first loved us” (1 John 4:19).

5. The Gospel in one line​

Jesus did not merely show us how to obey —
He obeyed for us, so that through His obedience, we might be counted righteous and empowered to live righteously.

That is how Christ’s obedience gives us the victory:

• He fulfilled the Law we broke
• He paid the penalty we owed
• He gave us His righteousness by faith
• He conquered sin and death for us
• He empowers us by His Spirit to walk in newness of life

As Paul writes:

“Thanks be to God, who gives us the victory through our Lord Jesus Christ” (1 Corinthians 15:57).

---

 

[RandyPNW]

I do not see any of what you said here in what Jesus said Mat 5:17-30. The Law Jesus is speaking of is not the law of Moses that was placed outside the Ten Commandments Deut 31:24-31 that dealt with the priesthood, temple and sacrifices- lets stay in context to what Jesus is saying.

In turn I do not see what you're saying here in this passage in Matt 5? Jesus did not say he was distinguishing the Ten Commandments from the overall Law of Moses. The Jewish People would've assumed that the entire thing was the Covenant God gave to Israel, the 10 Commandments, Temple Law, Priestly Law, Sacrificial Law, and all of the ceremonial and purification laws.

Only you are making this distinction based on an action that did not spell that out in any detail. So, you're in effect reading into passages what is not there, and certainly not what Jesus meant.

On the other hand, what I said is in fact there. Jesus did not say he was restating the Law, and all 613 requirements, for all eternity, or "until heaven passes away." Rather, he was speaking of the inviolable nature of every requirement of the Law to be fulfilled in *himself.* He said he came not to destroy the Law but to "fulfill it" in himself.

And when we read the rest of Matthew, this is confirmed by Matthew that Jesus' fulfillment of the Law took place via his death on the cross, the rending of the veil, etc. The priesthood had passed to the Heavenly Priest, Christ Jesus.

You claim Jesus did not come to repeat God’s law, but yet what did He repeat in this very passage and many others?

Mat 5:21 “You have heard that it was said to those [d]of old, ‘You shall not murder, and whoever murders will be in danger of the judgment.’

I was referring to Jesus repeating the Law and its requirements *after his cross.* Obviously, Jesus asserted the legitimacy of every element of the Law that he was to fulfill *before* it had been fulfilled!

 

[SabbathBlessings]

In turn I do not see what you're saying here in this passage in Matt 5? Jesus did not say he was distinguishing the Ten Commandments from the overall Law of Moses. The Jewish People would've assumed that the entire thing was the Covenant God gave to Israel, the 10 Commandments, Temple Law, Priestly Law, Sacrificial Law, and all of the ceremonial and purification laws.

Where did Jesus say anything about the earthy priestly and sacrifical laws in Mat 5:19-30. Why add what’s not there. The laws were already distinguished in the OT by God Deut 4:13 Exo 34:28 Deut 5:22 Exo 20:6 Exo 20:11 Exo 31:24-26 and if we don’t understand these difference I can see why the NT would be difficult to reconcile. Jesus who is God made these distinctions clearly.

Jesus quoted the commandments He was referring to, let’s let Him define what He means and not add what’s we want His words to be. He does not need our help.

There is a law that not a jot or tittle can pass - would it be the Law of God that God wrote on stone for its eternal nature that sits under His mercy seat that is also revealed in heaven Rev 11:19 Rev 15:5 where His word is settled Psa 119:89 God’s own Testimony Exo 31:18 written by God, not man He promised not to alter Psa 89:34, or the law of Moses placed outside the Ten Commandments as a witness against written on paper which fades. Deut 31:24-26 Thankfully we do not need to guess.

We are already told the earthy priesthood santuary laws ended Heb 9:1-15 Heb 10:1-10 from the law of Moses, but Jesus quoted from the Ten Commandments as the commandments that not a jot or tittle shall pass. Mat 5:18-30

The Scripture will explain Itself if we allow it to. Sadly most people want to help His word, despite what God said not to, so plainly Pro 30:5-6

 

[RandyPNW]

Where did Jesus say anything about the earthy priestly and sacrifical laws in Mat 5:19-30.

It is clear as the blue skies!
Matthew 5.19 Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. 20 For I tell you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law, you will certainly not enter the kingdom of heaven.

Do you honestly think that the righteousness of the Pharisees and of the teachers of the Law consisted of keeping the 10 Commandments alone? Do you honestly think that Jesus was comparing one of the 10 Commandments with another of the 10 Commandments when he said some commandments were "least?"

So, what did the Pharisees teach and base their "righteousness" on?

Matt 23.1 hen Jesus said to the crowds and to his disciples: 2 “The teachers of the law and the Pharisees sit in Moses’ seat. 3 So you must be careful to do everything they tell you...
16 “Woe to you, blind guides! You say, ‘If anyone swears by the temple, it means nothing; but anyone who swears by the gold of the temple is bound by that oath.’....
23 “Woe to you, teachers of the law and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You give a tenth of your spices—mint, dill and cumin. But you have neglected the more important matters of the law—justice, mercy and faithfulness. You should have practiced the latter, without neglecting the former....

These laws, on swearing oaths and on tithing, were not just the 10 Commandments. Rather, the 10 Commandments were the moral basis upon which the Covenant of Moses had been predicated, requiring the obedience of faith and a sincerity of heart.

There is a law that not a jot or tittle can pass - would it be the Law of God that God wrote on stone for its eternal nature that sits under His mercy seat that is also revealed in heaven Rev 11:19 Rev 15:5 where His word is settled Psa 119:89 God’s own Testimony Exo 31:18 written by God, not man He promised not to alter Psa 89:34, or the law of Moses placed outside the Ten Commandments as a witness against written on paper which fades. Deut 31:24-26 Thankfully we do not need to guess.

You're making this up. This is not in the text. Sure, placement of the Commandments is in the text, but not what you're saying, that the 10 Commandments are not a subgroup within the overall Law of Moses.

Why are you so addicted to Sabbath observance?

 

[SabbathBlessings]

It is clear as the blue skies!
Matthew 5.19 Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. 20 For I tell you that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law, you will certainly not enter the kingdom of heaven.

Do you honestly think that the righteousness of the Pharisees and of the teachers of the Law consisted of keeping the 10 Commandments alone? Do you honestly think that Jesus was comparing one of the 10 Commandments with another of the 10 Commandments when he said some commandments were "least?"

So, what did the Pharisees teach and base their "righteousness" on?

Matt 23.1 hen Jesus said to the crowds and to his disciples: 2 “The teachers of the law and the Pharisees sit in Moses’ seat. 3 So you must be careful to do everything they tell you...
16 “Woe to you, blind guides! You say, ‘If anyone swears by the temple, it means nothing; but anyone who swears by the gold of the temple is bound by that oath.’....
23 “Woe to you, teachers of the law and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You give a tenth of your spices—mint, dill and cumin. But you have neglected the more important matters of the law—justice, mercy and faithfulness. You should have practiced the latter, without neglecting the former....

These laws, on swearing oaths and on tithing, were not just the 10 Commandments. Rather, the 10 Commandments were the moral basis upon which the Covenant of Moses had been predicated, requiring the obedience of faith and a sincerity of heart.

You're making this up. This is not in the text. Sure, placement of the Commandments is in the text, but not what you're saying, that the 10 Commandments are not a subgroup within the overall Law of Moses.

Why are you so addicted to Sabbath observance?

Still doesn't say anything about the priestly laws or sacrifical laws. Also I do not know what translation you are using but its not in the original Greek “the teachers of the law” that was added. Also, we are quoting Mat 5:18-30 not Mat 23.

It’s talking about our righteousness has to exceed the righteousness of the Pharasees. The Pharisees also layed aside the commandments of God Jesus again repeated from the Ten Commandments saying when doing so one worships Him in vain. So us doing the same thing is not exceeding the righteousness of the Pharisees and therefore will not enter the Kingdom of God, not my words.

For
γὰρ (gar)
Conjunction
Strong's 1063: For. A primary particle; properly, assigning a reason.

I tell
λέγω (legō)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 1st Person Singular
Strong's 3004: (a) I say, speak; I mean, mention, tell, (b) I call, name, especially in the pass., (c) I tell, command.

you
ὑμῖν (hymin)
Personal / Possessive Pronoun - Dative 2nd Person Plural
Strong's 4771: You. The person pronoun of the second person singular; thou.

that
ὅτι (hoti)
Conjunction
Strong's 3754: Neuter of hostis as conjunction; demonstrative, that; causative, because.

unless
ἐὰν (ean)
Conjunction
Strong's 1437: If. From ei and an; a conditional particle; in case that, provided, etc.

your
ὑμῶν (hymōn)
Personal / Possessive Pronoun - Genitive 2nd Person Plural
Strong's 4771: You. The person pronoun of the second person singular; thou.

righteousness
δικαιοσύνη (dikaiosynē)
Noun - Nominative Feminine Singular
Strong's 1343: From dikaios; equity; specially justification.

exceeds
περισσεύσῃ (perisseusē)
Verb - Aorist Subjunctive Active - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's 4052: From perissos; to superabound, be in excess, be superfluous; also to cause to superabound or excel.

[that] of the
τῶν (tōn)
Article - Genitive Masculine Plural
Strong's 3588: The, the definite article. Including the feminine he, and the neuter to in all their inflections; the definite article; the.

scribes
γραμματέων (grammateōn)
Noun - Genitive Masculine Plural
Strong's 1122: From gramma. A writer, i.e. scribe or secretary.

and
καὶ (kai)
Conjunction
Strong's 2532: And, even, also, namely.

Pharisees,
Φαρισαίων (Pharisaiōn)
Noun - Genitive Masculine Plural
Strong's 5330: Of Hebrew origin; a separatist, i.e. Exclusively religious; a Pharisean, i.e. Jewish sectary.

you will never enter
εἰσέλθητε (eiselthēte)
Verb - Aorist Subjunctive Active - 2nd Person Plural
Strong's 1525: To go in, come in, enter. From eis and erchomai; to enter.

the
τὴν (tēn)
Article - Accusative Feminine Singular
Strong's 3588: The, the definite article. Including the feminine he, and the neuter to in all their inflections; the definite article; the.

kingdom
βασιλείαν (basileian)
Noun - Accusative Feminine Singular
Strong's 932: From basileus; properly, royalty, i.e. rule, or a realm.

of
τῶν (tōn)
Article - Genitive Masculine Plural
Strong's 3588: The, the definite article. Including the feminine he, and the neuter to in all their inflections; the definite article; the.

heaven.
οὐρανῶν (ouranōn)
Noun - Genitive Masculine Plural
Strong's 3772: Perhaps from the same as oros; the sky; by extension, heaven; by implication, happiness, power, eternity; specially, the Gospel.

Which still doesn’t change which commandments Jesus was speaking about that He quoted verbatim that not a jot or tittle shall pass Mat 5:19-30 the same ones He already promised Psa 89:34

 

[Mercy Shown]

Heb 10:4-11 makes it very clear that the ceremonial law of "animal sacrifices and offerings" ended at the cross. It then contrasts it to the "once for all" atonement of Christ saying "He takes away the first, to establish the second" Heb 10:9.

(So much for the -- no mention of two distinct forms of Law--suggestion

1. Context: What is the “first” and the “second”?​

Hebrews 10:9 says:

“He takes away the first, that He may establish the second.”

To understand what is being taken away, we need to read the argument that begins in Hebrews 8 and continues through Hebrews 10. The author is contrasting two covenants, not two laws.

• Hebrews 8:7 — “For if that first covenant had been faultless, then no place would have been sought for the second.”
• Hebrews 8:13 — “In that He says, ‘A new covenant,’ He has made the first obsolete.”

The “first” and “second” in Hebrews 10:9 echo that same theme — the old covenant system of priesthood and sacrifices is being replaced by the new covenant established by Christ’s blood (see Heb 9:11–15).

So, the contrast is not between two laws of God, but between two covenants or systems of worship — the old, symbolic, shadow-based one, and the new, real, and eternal one.

2. The “law” in this passage refers to the sacrificial system, not the moral law​

Hebrews 10:1 begins:

“For the law, having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices... make the comers thereunto perfect.”

This “law” refers specifically to the sacrificial regulations that governed the tabernacle worship (see Heb 9:1–10). It is not saying that the Ten Commandments were a shadow — those moral precepts were never a “shadow” but expressions of God’s own character (Romans 7:12–14).

Paul confirms this distinction in Galatians 3:19 — the law “added because of transgressions, until the Seed should come” — clearly referring to the ceremonial/sacrificial law that pointed to Christ’s sacrifice, not to the eternal moral law that defines sin (Romans 3:20; 7:7).

Thus, Hebrews 10 shows that the sacrificial aspect of the law was temporary and typological — not that there were two coequal “laws” of God.

3. Christ did not abolish the moral function of the law — He fulfilled it​

Jesus Himself said:

“Think not that I am come to destroy the law or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill.” (Matthew 5:17)

Christ’s perfect obedience upheld the moral function of the law’s authority even as His death brought the ceremonial types to their fulfillment. The sacrificial system ended because its purpose was completed, not because the moral law was abolished.

So when Hebrews says, “He takes away the first to establish the second,” the “first” refers to the old covenant with its priesthood and sacrifices, and the “second” refers to the new covenant grounded in Christ’s once-for-all offering(Hebrews 10:10).

Hebrews 10 does not teach two laws of God — it teaches two covenants, one temporary and symbolic, the other eternal and real. The ceremonial sacrifices ended at the cross; the moral function of the law remains, now written on the heart under the new covenant (Heb 8:10).