DennisF
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- Aug 31, 2024
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No it does not - at least not in the sense I described. We know he did not have premarital sex with Mary, but that does not rule out that his altered genetics were involved in Mary's conception. Once she was impregnated by the higher beings called angels, she was perhaps no longer a "virgin". And by the way, have you exercised Feucht's First Law of Bible study? Do not "trust" the translations because often they are entirely inadequate in conveying the correct sense of a text. I won't do your homework for you; check out the meaning of the word translated "virgin". It is not exactly as you suppose.I'd consider those 2 separate and not necessarily connected statements. Joseph's DNA alteration is nowhere to be found other than imaginations.
We do know a virgin conceived, which rules out Joseph
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