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Ok so if it's written the same way throughout, then why can Joshua include rhetorical language but not Genesis?Moses wrote Genesis and the rest of the Law....its written in the same manner throughout is the point.....and Genesis and the rest of the Law is not written rhetorically.
Silly - and none of that are examples of rhetorical writing.Let's take a look at the flood account:
Genesis 7:20-21 ESV
[20] The waters prevailed above the mountains, covering them fifteen cubits deep. [21] And all flesh died that moved on the earth, birds, livestock, beasts, all swarming creatures that swarm on the earth, and all mankind.
But all mankind didn't die. Noah was spared. That's an example of rhetorical language.
Genesis 8:4-5, 9 ESV
[4] and in the seventh month, on the seventeenth day of the month, the ark came to rest on the mountains of Ararat. [5] And the waters continued to abate until the tenth month; in the tenth month, on the first day of the month, the tops of the mountains were seen.
[9] But the dove found no place to set her foot, and she returned to him to the ark, for the waters were still on the face of the whole earth. So he put out his hand and took her and brought her into the ark with him.
Another example. The waters could not be on the face of the whole earth if the ark came to rest on the mountains of Ararat and the tops of the mountains were seen.
Again, that's rhetorical language.
The Genesis flood account does this repeatedly. And it's not that the flood account is contradicting itself. Rather, the flood account is just using rhetorical language.
There were not stow-away nephelim hiding in the ark behind the lions cage.
One argument is that the people on the Ark could have carried the genetic materials for Nephilim. Alternatively, as I ascribe, the terms "giants" and "Nephilim" are used for unions of men/women using wicked methods with demonic entities, so they could be "created" again using those methods later. This isn't a super common belief in the West, but it is more common in Orthodox circles.Interesting. Were there nephelim on the ark?
The "Law" is the Torah, the 5 books of Moses. Joshua is not a part of the Torah but is part of the Tanakh. When he says "Moses wrote Genesis and the rest of the Law....its written in the same manner throughout is the point.." he means the Torah.Ok so if it's written the same way throughout, then why can Joshua include rhetorical language but not Genesis?
Actually they are. Do you not know what rhetorical language is? We can consult a dictionary if you would like. It is known as "hyperbole" for those who recall grade school English class.Silly - and none of that are examples of rhetorical writing.
Let me state that I largely am on your side, but these two would have rebuttals.
One argument is that the people on the Ark could have carried the genetic materials for Nephilim. Alternatively, as I ascribe, the terms "giants" and "Nephilim" are used for unions of men/women using wicked methods with demonic entities, so they could be "created" again using those methods later. This isn't a super common belief in the West, but it is more common in Orthodox circles.
I would just point out my post above. I'm not sure how you guys can deny rhetorical language in the text. The alternative would be textual contradictions.The "Law" is the Torah, the 5 books of Moses. Joshua is not a part of the Torah but is part of the Tanakh. When he says "Moses wrote Genesis and the rest of the Law....its written in the same manner throughout is the point.." he means the Torah.
There are a lot of others that share your opinion and theology on Bible topics...they preach hyperbole and rhetorical on things clearly understood...then circle back to literalness on things that are not so clear. You do that often. There is nothing genuine in what you are saying when you approach God's Word that way.Sure, I don't subscribe to that interpretation of the text. The idea that perhaps demons returned and had more nephelim children after the flood. Or that maybe Noah was part-nephelim or that his children were, as if Noah had bred with the nephelim.
Maybe it's just my western theology, but I find those ideas to be a bit strange.
But it is factually hyperbole. What other way is there to interpret it? It can't be literal or you would have contradictions.There are a lot of others that share your opinion and theology on Bible topics...they preach hyperbole and rhetorical on things clearly understood...then circle back to literalness on things that are not so clear. You do that often. There is nothing genuine in what you are saying when you approach God's Word that way.
Oh, it is strangeSure, I don't subscribe to that interpretation of the text. The idea that perhaps demons returned and had more nephelim children after the flood. Or that maybe Noah was part-nephelim or that his children were, as if Noah had bred with the nephelim.
Maybe it's just my western theology, but I find those ideas to be a bit strange.
I don't deny it can be rhetorical anymore, I did previously, but through more introspection, prayer and reading I am not on the YEC or Embedded age side.I would just point out my post above. I'm not sure how you guys can deny rhetorical language in the text. The alternative would be textual contradictions.
At the risk of going on a tangent, how do you suppose that the Nephilim material/traits/whatever pass from the Ark to offspring? Logic would say that in that scenario it would have to be genetic. I suppose that perhaps your belief is that the Nephilim are not demons/demonic, if that is the case then what are they, in your view? The only scripture that speaks of them pre-flood heavily implies that they are some sort of hybrid, which must be passed down somehow, in your theory. If there is no angelic/demonic/whatever DNA then it would just be normal human DNA passing from the inhabitants of the Ark.I didn't know demons had DNA
I generally lean towards KJV:At the risk of going on a tangent, how do you suppose that the Nephilim material/traits/whatever pass from the Ark to offspring? Logic would say that in that scenario it would have to be genetic. I suppose that perhaps your belief is that the Nephilim are not demons/demonic, if that is the case then what are they, in your view? The only scripture that speaks of them pre-flood heavily implies that they are some sort of hybrid, which must be passed down somehow, in your theory. If there is no angelic/demonic/whatever DNA then it would just be normal human DNA passing from the inhabitants of the Ark.
The problem is that the original Hebrew uses "הַנְּפִילִ֛ים" in both Genesis 6:4 and Numbers 13:33, which is a direct translation (and reasonable pronunciation) to "Nephilim". KJV uses "giants", we could discuss what "giants" or "Nephilim" are/were, but the term is the one that should probably be used in the translation.No mention of "The Nephilim".
Because it is interesting and thinking about big questions is good for your mind. As long as it does not delve into mud slinging and arguments it is good for us to discuss in good faith and attempt to learn from one another.Hi
Why speculate on something no-one can answer
Love and Peace
Dave
I don't think any of us are seeking "attention", honestly that is offensive. If you don't care for the conversation you don't have to be a part of it.For attention perhaps. Most or a lot or all is made up and passed down generation to generation without a shred of seeking truth.
I know you want to believe that. But if so, then the sky is a solid dome with windows in it through which rain falls. So, I'm thinking your interpretation cannot be so.Genesis was written the same as the rest of the law...and its not rhetorical.