Does man have a freewill ?

[Brightfame52]

@Spiritual Jew

According to Paul, he can choose whether or not to glorify God and be thankful to Him, but in your false doctrine he somehow can't choose to repent and believe the gospel. That makes no sense at all.

Not when he was dead in sin.

 

[Jerry N.]

@Spiritual Jew




Not when he was dead in sin.

Have you seen the film “Green Mile”? An idiot guard in death row would announce new prisoners as “dead man walking.” Being dead in sin is like that. We are alive but condemned to death.

 

[Clare73]

Then it seems to me God isn't all knowing in Himself, but God has all knowledge through His action.

I'll leave that to the hair-splitters. . .

 

[Spiritual Jew]

Based on His foreknowledge.

And what do you think that means? Please be more specific. Why do I keep having to ask you to do that? Be clear about what you are intending to say.

Here is where the rubber meets the road. If what you describe above and conclude below work in unison then how do you account for Romans 9:22-24?

In order to understand the context of Romans 9:22-24 requires going back at least to the beginning of Romans 9, but that would take me a long time to go through all of that. So, I'll just go back to verse 17 for now since Pharaoh was one example of the objects of God's wrath that Paul is referring to in verse 22.

Romans 9:17 For Scripture says to Pharaoh: “I raised you up for this very purpose, that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.” 18 Therefore God has mercy on whom he wants to have mercy, and he hardens whom he wants to harden. 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?” 20 But who are you, a human being, to talk back to God? “Shall what is formed say to the one who formed it, ‘Why did you make me like this?’” 21 Does not the potter have the right to make out of the same lump of clay some pottery for special purposes and some for common use? 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction? 23 What if he did this to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory— 24 even us, whom he also called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles?

Now, in order to understand what verse 22 is talking about when it refers to "the objects of his wrath prepared for destruction" we should consider one example of such a person that Paul gave, which was Pharaoh, the king of Egypt in Moses's day who kept the Israelites as his slaves.

We need to answer a few questions about Pharaoh. Was his heart hardened by God from birth with the intention that he would eventually become king of Egypt while making the Israelites his slaves? No. There is nothing written to suggest such a thing. God didn't pick Pharaoh randomly to display his power through him. God saw that Pharaoh had hardened his own heart towards Him and that made him a candidate to be used by God to display His power. God can do that if He wants to. He can make an example out of any hard-hearted person and harden their heart even further for His purposes if He wants to. As Paul talked about, someone might ask why God could still blame Pharaoh for what he did after God hardened his heart? But, we have no right to question God. As Paul said, God made an example out of Pharaoh "that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth". God had every right to do that and no one can question it. But, does this have anything to do with God foreordaining Pharaoh to have a hardened heart from birth? No.

So, getting back to verse 22, that verse has nothing to do with God having predestined some to salvation and some to damnation from birth, as Calvinists imagine. It has to do with God being able to use people for certain purposes if He wants to, such as how he used Pharaoh to display his power and show the world that He will not tolerate wickedness and rebellion and will not tolerate His people being mistreated the way Pharaoh and the Egyptians did. God does things like that "to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy" (Romans 9:23) which include both Jew and Gentile believers.

Look at verse 18. God has mercy on whom He wants to have mercy and hardens who He wants to harden. That's entirely up to Him and not up to man. But, does He arbitrarily have mercy on some and harden others? No. Paul said that He wants to have mercy on all people (Romans 11:30-32), so its' not possible that He has mercy on people arbitrarily. The reason He doesn't have mercy on some cannot be by His choice alone, but must be because He requires all people to repent and believe and those who choose not to do so and continually refuse to do so do not receive His mercy.

 

[Spiritual Jew]

Let me also point out that prognosis is used only of God's foreknowledge, who knows in advance what is going to happen because he has decreed that it shall happen.

He has decreed ahead of time that anyone who willingly chooses to repent and believe in Christ will be saved and those who don't will be condemned.

 

[Clare73]

He has decreed ahead of time that anyone who willingly chooses to repent and believe in Christ will be saved and those who don't will be condemned.

His sovereignty has decreed more than "anyone who willingly chooses" to repent and believe in Christ will be saved.
He has decreed who they shall be (Eph 1:4-5)-->chosen "to be," not chosen "because."

 

[zoidar]

I'll leave that to the hair-splitters. . .

Hairsplitting? Quite an important question, I would say. If God knows because of His act/decree, then something (knowledge) is added to God, which means God is learning and His omnipotence comes into question.

 

[Brightfame52]

Have you seen the film “Green Mile”? An idiot guard in death row would announce new prisoners as “dead man walking.” Being dead in sin is like that. We are alive but condemned to death.

No, by nature we dead in sin to God and the things of God, lost, alienated from God. Only hope is that we be made alive first Eph 2:5

5 Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved)

Now, correct, naturally we are alive but thats enmity against God positively .

Rom 8 7-8

7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.

8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.

Thats us as long as we are dead in sin

 

[Spiritual Jew]

His sovereignty has decreed more than "anyone who willingly chooses" to repent and believe in Christ will be saved.
He has decreed who they shall be (Eph 1:4-5)-->chosen "to be," not chosen "because."

Wrong. Why do you not understand that your interpretation of that passage contradicts a great deal of scripture? You end up denying clear scripture which teaches that God wants all people to repent (2 Peter 3:9, Ezekiel 18:23, Ezekiel 33:11) which is why He commands all people everywhere to repent (Acts 17:30). And God wants all people to be saved (1 Timothy 2:3-6), which is why Jesus died for the sins of all people in the whole world (John 3:16, 1 John 2:1-2) and why God graciously offers salvation to all people (Titus 2:11). God does not contradict Himself. He would not want all people to repent and to be saved if He purposely made it so that only some would be saved while others would have no opportunity and no ability to be saved.

Your doctrine blatantly contradicts God's character. God is love (1 John 4:8). Your understanding of God is that He is partially love and partially hate. Surely, any God who purposely makes it so that a majority of people do not even get the opportunity to be saved and therefore are guaranteed to spend eternity in the lake of fire in eternal torment is not a God who it could be said "is love". That's pure hate to purposely prevent people from having any opportunity to be saved while ensuring that they instead will be punished for eternity. But, that is not who God is. He is love and loved the whole world enough to send His Son to die for their sins so that whoever in the world believes will not perish but have everlasting life. The offer and opportunity of salvation is made for everyone because that is what we would expect a God who is love to do. Being sovereign, God can have mercy on whoever He wants without man deciding who He should have mercy on. But, God, since He is love, desires to have mercy on all people and gives all people the opportunity to receive His mercy (Romans 11:30-32).

 

[Clare73]

Hairsplitting? Quite an important question, I would say. If God knows because of His act/decree, then something (knowledge) is added to God, which means God is learning and His omnipotence comes into question.

Not much in my life depends on sorting that out. . .

 

[Spiritual Jew]

Rom 8 7-8

7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be.

8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.

Thats us as long as we are dead in sin

The following shows that someone can have a carnal mind and still be a Christian, showing that having a carnal mind does not keep someone from confessing that they are a sinner and does not keep someone from believing in Christ as is required to be saved. It keeps them from behaving the way God wants them to, but even "babes in Christ" have trouble with that before they are ready to take in spiritual solid food and become more mature in the faith.

1 Corinthians 3:1 And I, brethren, could not speak to you as to spiritual people but as to carnal, as to babes in Christ. 2 I fed you with milk and not with solid food; for until now you were not able to receive it, and even now you are still not able; 3 for you are still carnal. For where there are envy, strife, and divisions among you, are you not carnal and [a]behaving like mere men?

 

[zoidar]

Not much in my life depends on sorting that out. . .

If you don’t think much depends on it, then maybe it’s worth reconsidering your position. You’ve got little to lose by re-evaluating it, especially if you believe it doesn’t affect your daily life.

 

[Spiritual Jew]

Not when he was dead in sin.

Was it too much trouble for you to be clear about what exactly you were referring to here? I said "According to Paul, he can choose whether or not to glorify God and be thankful to Him, but in your false doctrine he somehow can't choose to repent and believe the gospel. That makes no sense at all.".

What are you saying that someone can't do while dead in sin? Are you saying they can't choose to glorify God and be thankful to Him or are you only saying that they can't choose to repent and believe? If you're saying that they can't choose to glorify God and be thankful to Him then why did Paul indicate that no one has any excuse for not glorifying God and being thankful to Him?

Romans 1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who [d]suppress the truth in unrighteousness, 19 because what may be known of God is manifest in them, for God has shown it to them. 20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even His eternal power and Godhead, so that they are without excuse, 21 because, although they knew God, they did not glorify Him as God, nor were thankful, but became futile in their thoughts, and their foolish hearts were darkened.

If you agree that no one has any excuse for not glorifying God and being thankful to Him, why would you not also believe that no one has any excuse for not repenting and believing? How can it be that someone could have the ability to glorify God as God and be thankful to Him, but at the same time somehow not be able to confess their sins to God while putting their trust in Jesus for their salvation?

 

[Clare73]

If you don’t think much depends on it, then maybe it’s worth reconsidering your position. You’ve got little to lose by re-evaluating it, especially if you believe it doesn’t affect your daily life.

I'll let you exposit that.

 

[Hentenza]

And what do you think that means? Please be more specific. Why do I keep having to ask you to do that? Be clear about what you are intending to say.

“For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters;”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭8‬:‭29‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬

Romans 8:29 For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters | New American Standard Bible - NASB (NASB2020) | Download The Bible App Now

For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters

bible.com

You didn’t know about foreknowledge?

In order to understand the context of Romans 9:22-24 requires going back at least to the beginning of Romans 9, but that would take me a long time to go through all of that. So, I'll just go back to verse 17 for now since Pharaoh was one example of the objects of God's wrath that Paul is referring to in verse 22.

Romans 9:17 For Scripture says to Pharaoh: “I raised you up for this very purpose, that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.” 18 Therefore God has mercy on whom he wants to have mercy, and he hardens whom he wants to harden. 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?” 20 But who are you, a human being, to talk back to God? “Shall what is formed say to the one who formed it, ‘Why did you make me like this?’” 21 Does not the potter have the right to make out of the same lump of clay some pottery for special purposes and some for common use? 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction? 23 What if he did this to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory— 24 even us, whom he also called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles?

Now, in order to understand what verse 22 is talking about when it refers to "the objects of his wrath prepared for destruction" we should consider one example of such a person that Paul gave, which was Pharaoh, the king of Egypt in Moses's day who kept the Israelites as his slaves.

We need to answer a few questions about Pharaoh. Was his heart hardened by God from birth with the intention that he would eventually become king of Egypt while making the Israelites his slaves? No. There is nothing written to suggest such a thing. God didn't pick Pharaoh randomly to display his power through him. God saw that Pharaoh had hardened his own heart towards Him and that made him a candidate to be used by God to display His power. God can do that if He wants to. He can make an example out of any hard-hearted person and harden their heart even further for His purposes if He wants to. As Paul talked about, someone might ask why God could still blame Pharaoh for what he did after God hardened his heart? But, we have no right to question God. As Paul said, God made an example out of Pharaoh "that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth". God had every right to do that and no one can question it. But, does this have anything to do with God foreordaining Pharaoh to have a hardened heart from birth? No.

I agree that pharaoh was an object of His wrath prepared for destruction.

So, getting back to verse 22, that verse has nothing to do with God having predestined some to salvation and some to damnation from birth, as Calvinists imagine. It has to do with God being able to use people for certain purposes if He wants to, such as how he used Pharaoh to display his power and show the world that He will not tolerate wickedness and rebellion and will not tolerate His people being mistreated the way Pharaoh and the Egyptians did. God does things like that "to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy" (Romans 9:23) which include both Jew and Gentile believers.

verse 22 has nothing to do with predestination but verses 28-30 do.

“And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose. For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters; and these whom He predestined, He also called; and these whom He called, He also justified; and these whom He justified, He also glorified.”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭8‬:‭28‬-‭30‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬

Romans 8:28-30 And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose. For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conf | New American Standard Bible - NA

And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose. For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conf

bible.com

I‘m sure you will have an interpretation of some sort that will soften the definition of predestination to mean something that was nor preordained and yet the definition is to determine before.

προορίζω proorízō, pro-or-id'-zo; from G4253 and G3724; to limit in advance, i.e. (figuratively) predetermine:—determine before, ordain, predestinate.

Look at verse 18. God has mercy on whom He wants to have mercy and hardens who He wants to harden. That's entirely up to Him and not up to man. But, does He arbitrarily have mercy on some and harden others? No. Paul said that He wants to have mercy on all people (Romans 11:30-32), so its' not possible that He has mercy on people arbitrarily. The reason He doesn't have mercy on some cannot be by His choice alone, but must be because He requires all people to repent and believe and those who choose not to do so and continually refuse to do so do not receive His mercy.

Here you make God contingent on man. God has to wait on man to verify His foreknowledge so He could be wrong. If God is contingent on anything then He is not the first cause and could not be omniscient and all powerful. Now what? Does the Bible contradict itself?

 

[zoidar]

I'll let you exposit that.

I thought I just did. If you hold that God knows only because of His decrees, how can God then be truly omniscient? And if this issue doesn’t matter much in your life, why bring up that God’s knowledge depends on His decrees at all?

 

[Spiritual Jew]

“For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters;”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭8‬:‭29‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬

Romans 8:29 For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters | New American Standard Bible - NASB (NASB2020) | Download The Bible App Now

For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters

bible.com

You didn’t know about foreknowledge?

LOL. Of course I do, but what do you think it means? Are you equating predestination and foreknowledge? They are not the same. God predestined those He foreknew, according to Romans 8:29. Who are those He foreknew? Paul gets around to that later...

Romans 11:1 I say then, Hath God cast away his people? God forbid. For I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin.
2 God hath not cast away his people which he foreknew. Wot ye not what the scripture saith of Elias? how he maketh intercession to God against Israel saying, 3 Lord, they have killed thy prophets, and digged down thine altars; and I am left alone, and they seek my life. 4 But what saith the answer of God unto him? I have reserved to myself seven thousand men, who have not bowed the knee to the image of Baal. 5 Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace.

Many assume that this is talking about God knowing something beforehand and foreordaining something to occur, but I see it as talking about those who God knew before this was written. It refers to the seven thousand that refused to bow to the image of Baal in Elijah's day and the remnant of Israelite believers in Paul's day. God predestined that those who He knew before who were the Israelites that stayed faithful to Him and were also called, justified and glorified. Paul indicated that those who have faith like them would also be called, justified and glorified, assuming they keep their faith until the end like those believers did, of course.

I used to believe that it's talking about God, since He exists outside of time, being able to know beforehand who would believe and who would not and He predestined those who He knew would believe to be called, justified and glorified. I still think that's a viable interpretation, but I lean more towards the interpretation I described above now.

I agree that pharaoh was an object of His wrath prepared for destruction.

verse 22 has nothing to do with predestination but verses 28-30 do.

You referenced Romans 9:22-24 and I addressed it. Why did you reference it?

“And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose. For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters; and these whom He predestined, He also called; and these whom He called, He also justified; and these whom He justified, He also glorified.”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭8‬:‭28‬-‭30‬ ‭NASB2020‬‬

Romans 8:28-30 And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose. For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conf | New American Standard Bible - NA

And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose. For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conf

bible.com

I‘m sure you will have an interpretation of some sort that will soften the definition of predestination to mean something that was nor preordained by yet the definition is to determine before.

It does relate to something that was preordained, but what was that? Are you a Calvinist? If so, that would mean you think that some people were predestined to believe and the rest were not, but that contradicts a lot of scripture and cannot be true.

Here you make God contingent on man. God has to wait on man to verify His foreknowledge so He could be wrong. If God is contingent on anything then He is not the first cause and could not be omniscient and all powerful. Now what? Does the Bible contradict itself?

You are being vague here. What are you intending to say exactly? Did I ever say that God is contingent on man in predestination or that He has to wait on man to verify His foreknowledge or anything like that? No, I did not. Talk to me instead of your straw man. What exactly are you intending to say here? Why are you never specific? Are you intending to say that God alone decides who is saved or not and that man has no say in the matter? That seems to be what you're saying, but for some reason you have an aversion to be clear and specific about what you're intending to say.

Do you agree with the scriptures which teach that God wants and commands all people to repent (Ezekiel 18:23, Ezekiel 33:11, 2 Peter 3:9, Acts 17:30) and all people to be saved (1 Timothy 2:3-6) and graciously offers salvation to all people (Titus 2:11) which was made possible by sending His Son to die for the sins of the whole world (John 3:16, 1 John 2:1-2)? If so, how do you reconcile them with your apparent Calvinist doctrine?

 

[Hentenza]

LOL. Of course I do, but what do you think it means? Are you equating predestination and foreknowledge?

they are the not the same but they are related. And yet those that He foreknew He also predestined.

They are not the same. God predestined those He foreknew, according to Romans 8:29. Who are those He foreknew? Paul gets around to that later...

Romans 11:1 I say then, Hath God cast away his people? God forbid. For I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin.
2 God hath not cast away his people which he foreknew. Wot ye not what the scripture saith of Elias? how he maketh intercession to God against Israel saying, 3 Lord, they have killed thy prophets, and digged down thine altars; and I am left alone, and they seek my life. 4 But what saith the answer of God unto him? I have reserved to myself seven thousand men, who have not bowed the knee to the image of Baal. 5 Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace.

Many assume that this is talking about God knowing something beforehand and foreordaining something to occur, but I see it as talking about those who God knew before this was written. It refers to the seven thousand that refused to bow to the image of Baal in Elijah's day and the remnant of Israelite believers in Paul's day. God predestined that those who He knew before who were the Israelites that stayed faithful to Him and were also called, justified and glorified. Paul indicated that those who have faith like them would also be called, justified and glorified, assuming they keep their faith until the end like those believers did, of course.

I used to believe that it's talking about God, since He exists outside of time, being able to know beforehand who would believe and who would not and He predestined those who He knew would believe to be called, justified and glorified. I still think that's a viable interpretation, but I lean more towards the interpretation I described above now.

Actually Romans 11:1-5 speak of His chosen (those that he foreknew) people of Israel. Elija is arguing against Israel’s because of their disobedience. God tells Elija that He keeps a remnant.

You referenced Romans 9:22-24 and I addressed it. Why did you reference it?

Because I’m getting old and meant to cite verses 28-30. lol

It does relate to something that was preordained, but what was that? Are you a Calvinist? If so, that would mean you think that some people were predestined to believe and the rest were not, but that contradicts a lot of scripture and cannot be true.

I prefer not to put myself in a labeled box. I study the word of God not interpretations.

You are being vague here. What are you intending to say exactly? Did I ever say that God is contingent on man in predestination or that He has to wait on man to verify His foreknowledge or anything like that? No, I did not. Talk to me instead of your straw man. What exactly are you intending to say here? Why are you never specific? Are you intending to say that God alone decides who is saved or not and that man has no say in the matter? That seems to be what you're saying, but for some reason you have an aversion to be clear and specific about what you're intending to say.

Actually I was Being quite direct. You said: “The reason He doesn't have mercy on some cannot be by His choice alone, but must be because He requires all people to repent and believe and those who choose not to do so and continually refuse to do so do not receive His mercy.”

If His choice can not be His alone then He is contingent on the other agency. If He is contingent then He can’t be the first cause because He is contingent on the other agency. If He is contingent on another agency to complete His foreknowledge then He can’t be omniscient. Hopefully this is clear to you.

Do you agree with the scriptures which teach that God wants and commands all people to repent (Ezekiel 18:23, Ezekiel 33:11, 2 Peter 3:9, Acts 17:30) and all people to be saved (1 Timothy 2:3-6) and graciously offers salvation to all people (Titus 2:11) which was made possible by sending His Son to die for the sins of the whole world (John 3:16, 1 John 2:1-2)? If so, how do you reconcile them with your apparent Calvinist doctrine?

It is not up to me to reconcile anything and as I stated above I don’t put myself in a box. The Bible teaches predestination, God has attributes that only work if He knows everything and if He can pick and choose at His pleasure. How exactly this works, the mechanism of an infinite God, we’ll know when we see him in heaven.

 

[Brightfame52]

The following shows that someone can have a carnal mind and still be a Christian, showing that having a carnal mind does not keep someone from confessing that they are a sinner and does not keep someone from believing in Christ as is required to be saved. It keeps them from behaving the way God wants them to, but even "babes in Christ" have trouble with that before they are ready to take in spiritual solid food and become more mature in the faith.

1 Corinthians 3:1 And I, brethren, could not speak to you as to spiritual people but as to carnal, as to babes in Christ. 2 I fed you with milk and not with solid food; for until now you were not able to receive it, and even now you are still not able; 3 for you are still carnal. For where there are envy, strife, and divisions among you, are you not carnal and [a]behaving like mere men?

The Corinthians may have been carnal in some things, but they were spiritual, they had the Spirit indwelling them, so they were not in the flesh. Paul said one isnt in the flesh but in the Spirit if the Spirit dwells in you, you belong to Christ Rom 8:9

9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.

The Corinthians had the Spirit dwelling in them 1 Cor 6:19

19 What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own?

So sorry you cant classify them with them in Rom 8:7-8 they are in the flesh Period

 

[Brightfame52]

Was it too much trouble for you to be clear about what exactly you were referring to here? I said "According to Paul, he can choose whether or not to glorify God and be thankful to Him, but in your false doctrine he somehow can't choose to repent and believe the gospel. That makes no sense at all.".

What are you saying that someone can't do while dead in sin? Are you saying they can't choose to glorify God and be thankful to Him or are you only saying that they can't choose to repent and believe? If you're saying that they can't choose to glorify God and be thankful to Him then why did Paul indicate that no one has any excuse for not glorifying God and being thankful to Him?

Romans 1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who [d]suppress the truth in unrighteousness, 19 because what may be known of God is manifest in them, for God has shown it to them. 20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even His eternal power and Godhead, so that they are without excuse, 21 because, although they knew God, they did not glorify Him as God, nor were thankful, but became futile in their thoughts, and their foolish hearts were darkened.

If you agree that no one has any excuse for not glorifying God and being thankful to Him, why would you not also believe that no one has any excuse for not repenting and believing? How can it be that someone could have the ability to glorify God as God and be thankful to Him, but at the same time somehow not be able to confess their sins to God while putting their trust in Jesus for their salvation?

Man by nature is dead in sin, alienated from the life of God. He cant do a thing Spiritual unto God, like repent and believe, he dead