Crucifixion Dating of Jesus Christ

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Scripture reveals that the entire conflict between the Creator and Satan is contained in the battle over worship. It is a war for the mind of every man, woman and child alive today. Therefore, it would be wise for everyone on earth to examine this subject for themselves. All should study and know for sure whether the true day of worship is a Saturday Sabbath or a Lunar Sabbath.

What all-too-frequently gets conflated is rest and worship. God gave the Sabbath to His people, Israel on Mount Sinai as one day out of the work week when they could rest from their work. He did not ever stipulate that Israel was only to worship God for one day of the week only and then be free to worship, or not worship, Him or other gods the remaining six days of the week. In fact, all of the Temple worship was conducted six days during the week. Guess which day of the week was in which the worship in the Temple was not conducted?

 

[Benaiah468]

We all agree that the Bible teaches not to go over six ordinary days without a special day called Sabbath. This will go on all year long, year after year throughout the ages, unless the heavenly Father breaks up the cycle of six ordinary days with another special day for worship. He will instruct us in what to do on every one of them. This is so simple, a fool or a wayfaring man cannot err therein.

YHVH did rest on the seventh day after working six days. However, counting from the very beginning in Genesis 1:1, it was the eighth event in a sequence of events. Everywhere the Sabbath is pinpointed in the Bible it is always on the 8th, 15th, 22nd, and 29th days of each moon. The New Moon day was never counted as one of the ordinary workdays, but was always a special day to YHVH, and all the approved examples in Scripture are profitable for our instructions. The Sabbath is a sign (or a beacon) for His people Israel.

Very important proof that the moon is given to locate the weekly Sabbath is by comparing three Scriptures: Genesis 1:14, Psalm 104:19 and Leviticus 23:3. The word feast in Leviticus 23:2 (speaking of the weekly Sabbath feast) is the same word as seasons (Hebrew = moedim) in the other two Scriptural passages. This is saying that the moon is for Sabbaths.

 

[AFrazier]

I've been doing that all my life. Thus far I've managed to travel over 50 years into the future!

I think we started the journey close to the same time.

 

[Benaiah468]

The Menorah is a testament of the monthly pattern of the lunar-solar-Calendar

The middle lamp depicts Creation Day, a precursor to the New Moon Day. On creation day, the earth was yet un-arranged and unadorned.

3 lamps on one side depict 3 days of arrangement; 3 lamps on the other side depict 3 days of adornment; the almond blossom on the trunk under the middle lamp depicted the 1st of 4 Sabbaths as depicted by the 4 almond blossoms on the trunk.

The 3 pairs of branches continued the 3-1-3 pattern with 3 almond blossoms on the branch on 1 side and 3 on the branch on the other side with one at each of the 3 couplings of branches, depicting the next 3 weeks.

 

[Benaiah468]

And it came to pass on the second sabbath after the first, that he went through the corn fields; and his disciples plucked the ears of corn, and did eat, rubbing them in their hands. Lk 6:1
εγενετο δε εν σαββατω δευτεροπρωτω διαπορευεσθαι δια των σποριμων και ετιλλον μαθηται τους σταχυας ησθιον ψωχοντες ταις χερσιν

Focus on the word δευτεροπρωτω in the original Greek, it do not fit the Gregorian Calendar.

So some translaters decided to change the meaning of this verse. And we can see for example in the NIV, how they changed it to read

One Sabbath Jesus was going through the grainfields, Lk 6:1a NIV

The NIV changed it when it said the second sabbath after the first , which we can see clearly on YHVH's calendar.

There are more bible's that got it wrong (NLT, ESV) but some Bible's got it right.

But what exactly does the second sabbath after the first mean?

The following is a list of a few theories from biblical scholars, that could explain that mysterious verse

The first Sabbath of the second month of the Jewish Year.
The second of the first Sabbaths after the Passover.
The Sabbath following the first day of the Unleavened Bread
The first Sabbath in the second year of the sabbatical cycle of seven years.
The first Sabbath of the second half of the civil Jewish year.
The second Sabbath of the feast of Pentecost.

This is some of the explanations from the scholars.

It's plain for us to keep things simple. It is the second Sabbath after the first Sabbath. It's very simple to see

The first Sabbath is the 8th day of the month and the second Sabbath is the 15th.

So whatever this verses means doesn’t change the fact that it can only applied to YHVH’s calendar, not a gregorian calendar. So even when you go back to all these explanations, they are all applied to YHVH’s calendar, to the feast calendar, none of them are applied to a Gregorian calendar.

There cannot be a 2nd Sabbath on a Gregorian calendar because Saturdaysabbatarian claim that Saturday Sabbaths are on a continuous cycle since creation. Therefore there can be no 2nd Sabbath. The 2nd Sabbath is tied to the month and New Moon. Each month has 4 Sabbaths, (first/8th, second/15th, third/22nd, fourth/29th).

So here it is the second sabbath after the first in the month.

The biblical calendar was made by the creator and craftily changed by men. There are over a 100 verses that support the biblical calendar and none that support the Roman Gregorian Calendar. YHVH’s calendar exists from the beginning of the universe.

 

[bbbbbbb]

And it came to pass on the second sabbath after the first, that he went through the corn fields; and his disciples plucked the ears of corn, and did eat, rubbing them in their hands. Lk 6:1
εγενετο δε εν σαββατω δευτεροπρωτω διαπορευεσθαι δια των σποριμων και ετιλλον μαθηται τους σταχυας ησθιον ψωχοντες ταις χερσιν

Focus on the word δευτεροπρωτω in the original Greek, it do not fit the Gregorian Calendar.

So some translaters decided to change the meaning of this verse. And we can see for example in the NIV, how they changed it to read

One Sabbath Jesus was going through the grainfields, Lk 6:1a NIV

The NIV changed it when it said the second sabbath after the first , which we can see clearly on YHVH's calendar.

There are more bible's that got it wrong (NLT, ESV) but some Bible's got it right.

But what exactly does the second sabbath after the first mean?

The following is a list of a few theories from biblical scholars, that could explain that mysterious verse



This is some of the explanations from the scholars.

It's plain for us to keep things simple. It is the second Sabbath after the first Sabbath. It's very simple to see


View attachment 364999


The first Sabbath is the 8th day of the month and the second Sabbath is the 15th.

So whatever this verses means doesn’t change the fact that it can only applied to YHVH’s calendar, not a gregorian calendar. So even when you go back to all these explanations, they are all applied to YHVH’s calendar, to the feast calendar, none of them are applied to a Gregorian calendar.

There cannot be a 2nd Sabbath on a Gregorian calendar because Saturdaysabbatarian claim that Saturday Sabbaths are on a continuous cycle since creation. Therefore there can be no 2nd Sabbath. The 2nd Sabbath is tied to the month and New Moon. Each month has 4 Sabbaths, (first/8th, second/15th, third/22nd, fourth/29th).

So here it is the second sabbath after the first in the month.

The biblical calendar was made by the creator and craftily changed by men. There are over a 100 verses that support the biblical calendar and none that support the Roman Gregorian Calendar. YHVH’s calendar exists from the beginning of the universe.

The problem, of course, is that using a lunar calendar to measure a yearly cycle of days results in a serious dissonance with the actual rotation of the earth around the sun. The cycle of lunar months does not align at all with the cycle of solar years. Thus, astronomers since the ancient Aztecs and Zorastrians were cognizant of the problem and developed highly accurate solar calendars. It took the West centuries to come to grips with the problem so that under Pope Gregory the calendar was adjusted to conform to the solar cycle and not the lunar cycle.

 

[Benaiah468]

The problem, of course, is that using a lunar calendar to measure a yearly cycle of days results in a serious dissonance with the actual rotation of the earth around the sun. The cycle of lunar months does not align at all with the cycle of solar years. Thus, astronomers since the ancient Aztecs and Zorastrians were cognizant of the problem and developed highly accurate solar calendars. It took the West centuries to come to grips with the problem so that under Pope Gregory the calendar was adjusted to conform to the solar cycle and not the lunar cycle.

In the ancient world this was solved by adding an extra month seven times in 19 years.

The Israelite calendar was lunisolar, that is to say time was measured on the basis of the new moon (the rotation of the moon around the earth) and also the sun (the rotation of the earth around the sun).

Did the Creator ordain Saturday as the authentic Sabbath of Scripture?

The biblical Sabbath was a lunar Sabbath fixed by the moon, rather than a specific day of the week independent of the moon or the sun.

 

[bbbbbbb]

In the ancient world this was solved by adding an extra month seven times in 19 years.

The Israelite calendar was lunisolar, that is to say time was measured on the basis of the new moon (the rotation of the moon around the earth) and also the sun (the rotation of the earth around the sun).

Did the Creator ordain Saturday as the authentic Sabbath of Scripture?

The biblical Sabbath was a lunar Sabbath fixed by the moon, rather than a specific day of the week independent of the moon or the sun.

Perhaps a more relevant question is with whom did the Creator make a covenant which entailed resting on the Sabbath. Some maintain that it was with all of humanity, but that hypothesis is difficult to maintain, given the immense numbers and variety of cultures who had no clue about such a covenant. There is no doubt, however, that this covenant was made with His elect people, Israel.

 

[Benaiah468]

Perhaps a more relevant question is with whom did the Creator make a covenant which entailed resting on the Sabbath. Some maintain that it was with all of humanity, but that hypothesis is difficult to maintain, given the immense numbers and variety of cultures who had no clue about such a covenant. There is no doubt, however, that this covenant was made with His elect people, Israel.

As Christians we are spiritual - and many of us also carnal - descendants of the ten lost tribes.

Consequently, we are part of Israel!

This is explained by the image of the olive tree: we are grafted as wild olive branches (Ephraim) into the noble olive tree (Israel).

What the Bible writes about Israel - the covenants, the prophecies, curses and blessings, the Torah, etc. therefore has something directly to do with us. It is about our people. It's about you and me!

#206

 

[bbbbbbb]

As Christians we are spiritual - and many of us also carnal - descendants of the ten lost tribes.

Consequently, we are part of Israel!

This is explained by the image of the olive tree: we are grafted as wild olive branches (Ephraim) into the noble olive tree (Israel).

What the Bible writes about Israel - the covenants, the prophecies, curses and blessings, the Torah, etc. therefore has something directly to do with us. It is about our people. It's about you and me!

#206

Gentile Christians are not participants in the covenant made with Israel. Gentile Christians do not need to circumcise their sons nor must they observe the dietary Law. Israel and the Church are under two distinct covenants.

 

[Benaiah468]

Gentile Christians are not participants in the covenant made with Israel. Gentile Christians do not need to circumcise their sons nor must they observe the dietary Law. Israel and the Church are under two distinct covenants.

If you take the word for congregation in the Torah, it is the same word in a Hebrew translation of the Brit Chadascha (NT). Unfortunately, the translators never rendered it that way, so it could give the impression that the congregation (church) is something different from the congregation in the Torah. From YHWH's point of view, there is only one congregation, one set of laws (Torah), one king and one land. This also applies to the strangers. It says again and again in the Torah

One law for the native and for the stranger who lives among you. Ex 12:49

The congregation, the two houses of Judah and Israel (the ten lost tribes) were one unit until under the king and will be reunited as one unit at the end. And those who have become believers from the Gentile nations are grafted into the confederation of Israel (biblically speaking) and belong to it. And if we are grafted into the state of Israel, the basis also applies to us: one constitution (Torah), one king and one country. And the following applies:

Boast not against the branches. But if thou boast, [then know] thou bearest not the root, but the root thee. Ro 11:18

the foundation is the Torah.

And there is also the Torah's statement that although we were not there at Sinai, we were there:

Neither with you only do I make this covenant and this oath; But with him that standeth here with us this day before the Lord our G-d, and also with him that is not here with us this day: Deu 29:14-15

In other words: YHVH sets before all (the two houses and the strangers) a covenant. Whoever enters into the covenant and keeps the covenant conditions belongs to the bride. Anyone who does not keep the terms of the covenant and breaks the covenant does not belong to the bride!

#14

 

[bbbbbbb]

If you take the word for congregation in the Torah, it is the same word in a Hebrew translation of the Brit Chadascha (NT). Unfortunately, the translators never rendered it that way, so it could give the impression that the congregation (church) is something different from the congregation in the Torah. From YHWH's point of view, there is only one congregation, one set of laws (Torah), one king and one land. This also applies to the strangers. It says again and again in the Torah

One law for the native and for the stranger who lives among you. Ex 12:49

The congregation, the two houses of Judah and Israel (the ten lost tribes) were one unit until under the king and will be reunited as one unit at the end. And those who have become believers from the Gentile nations are grafted into the confederation of Israel (biblically speaking) and belong to it. And if we are grafted into the state of Israel, the basis also applies to us: one constitution (Torah), one king and one country. And the following applies:

Boast not against the branches. But if thou boast, [then know] thou bearest not the root, but the root thee. Ro 11:18

the foundation is the Torah.

And there is also the Torah's statement that although we were not there at Sinai, we were there:

Neither with you only do I make this covenant and this oath; But with him that standeth here with us this day before the Lord our G-d, and also with him that is not here with us this day: Deu 29:14-15

In other words: YHVH sets before all (the two houses and the strangers) a covenant. Whoever enters into the covenant and keeps the covenant conditions belongs to the bride. Anyone who does not keep the terms of the covenant and breaks the covenant does not belong to the bride!

#14

Well, I guess that leaves out all of the Gentile Christians who, based on the Council in Jerusalem which was recorded in Acts 15, have failed to engage in the essential rite of male circumcision and have not kept the dietary commandments of the Law. That also includes the fact that the vast, vast majority of Gentile Christians do not observe the Sabbath.

 

[Benaiah468]

Well, I guess that leaves out all of the Gentile Christians who, based on the Council in Jerusalem which was recorded in Acts 15, have failed to engage in the essential rite of male circumcision and have not kept the dietary commandments of the Law. That also includes the fact that the vast, vast majority of Gentile Christians do not observe the Sabbath.

Jewish tradition says that gentiles or the children of Noah should keep only seven commandments. In contrast, Jews are bound by all 613 commandments of the Torah.

Both misunderstandings presuppose that G-d has a double standard, one for Jews and one for gentiles. This is not supported in the Torah. Since sin is the transgression of the Torah, it should be understandable that the Jerusalem Council did not abrogate all but four of the OT commandments. How else could all scripture, inspired by G-d, be useful for education in righteousness?

In today's Christianity it is often ignored, simply not understood or even interpreted in such a way that it was decided at that time that the law no longer applies to Christians. Some even do violence to it and speak of two different ways of salvation.

#72


Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to G-d: But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood. For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day. Acts 15:19-21

What is being said here?

The Gentiles who convert should start with these 4 commandments!

And what about the rest of the Torah?

The rest of the commandments have always been taught in the synagogues. Every Sabbath anew. There the new converts will then hear the rest and can slowly grow into the rest.

#73

 

[prodromos]

The first Sabbath is the 8th day of the month and the second Sabbath is the 15th.

I was under the impression that the Jews counted inclusively. Thus the 1st Sabbath would not be on the 8th as that is now the 2nd Sabbath.

 

[JSRG]

And it came to pass on the second sabbath after the first, that he went through the corn fields; and his disciples plucked the ears of corn, and did eat, rubbing them in their hands. Lk 6:1
εγενετο δε εν σαββατω δευτεροπρωτω διαπορευεσθαι δια των σποριμων και ετιλλον μαθηται τους σταχυας ησθιον ψωχοντες ταις χερσιν

Focus on the word δευτεροπρωτω in the original Greek, it do not fit the Gregorian Calendar.

So some translaters decided to change the meaning of this verse. And we can see for example in the NIV, how they changed it to read

One Sabbath Jesus was going through the grainfields, Lk 6:1a NIV

The NIV changed it when it said the second sabbath after the first , which we can see clearly on YHVH's calendar.

There are more bible's that got it wrong (NLT, ESV) but some Bible's got it right.

Translators did not change the meaning. The divergence here is not because of a difference in translation, but a difference in the text itself that is being translated. In fact, your own link in the word δευτεροπρωτω notes this, saying "But the genuineness of the word is questionable. It is lacking in א B L 1, 33, 69 and some other authorities. Hence, Tr text WH omit the word; L Tr marginal reading brackets it."

The NET Bible gives a good though brief explanation of the issue in its footnote for the verse:

Most later mss (A C D Θ Ψ [ƒ] M lat) read ἐν σαββάτῳ δευτεροπρώτῳ (en sabbatō deuteroprōtō, “a second-first Sabbath”), while the earlier and better witnesses have simply ἐν σαββάτῳ (P א B L W ƒ 33 579 1241 2542 it sa). The longer reading is most likely secondary, though various explanations may account for it (for discussion, see TCGNT 116).

There are reasonable arguments for and against the deuteroproto being original, and I don't have a definite opinion on it. But if it is not original, then your subsequent argument becomes irrelevant.

Supposing it is original, however, we run into the problem that the translation from the kJV your argument relies on--"the second Sabbath after the first"--is itself speculative. The word in question, deuteroproto, literally means "second-first". It is found nowhere else in the Bible (Mark and Matthew describe the same incident and neither use the word). In fact, outside of this one verse and later writings referring to it, nothing like this phrase is found anywhere in any writing in Greek. Thus the translation "second Sabbath after the first" is already a guess, so one shouldn't be trying to rest their argument too much on what is already a guess.

But what seems to me a major problem with your subsequent argument is that if you are correct, it means Luke is including this detail to say it was the second Sabbath of the month. But why would Luke include this detail? Of what use is it to know that it was the second Sabbath of an unspecified month? It adds absolutely nothing to the narrative and gives the reader no real knowledge. So even supposing that this word was original to the text, it doesn't explain why it would be there at all. Some of the explanations you reject seem much more plausible than your interpretation for the simple fact that those are specific enough about the date that there would be an actual reason to include the detail.

 

[tampasteve]

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