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Woman who preaches in Church

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Jermayn

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A woman doesn't need to be the husband of one wife.

When that was written, women had few rights. Jewish and Greek women had no rights at all; those who had become Christians were becoming liberated through the way that Jesus, and the church, treated women. Jesus DID allow women to follow him, learn from him, speak for him and witness to him, so his followers were doing the same. That's why Mary, and others, were in the upper room before Pentecost praying alongside the men.
Even so, women had not yet been allowed to become leaders in the church. So it would have been pointless saying "if you are female and want to be an elder you must be the wife of one husband". Women were not, then, able to be elders - so there was no point in writing instructions about how they should behave.

In the same way, Jesus teaches that a man must not divorce his wife - in fact the whole Bible talks of men doing the divorcing.
What about women divorcing their husbands? In those days it was impossible. There was no point in telling women not to do that; they couldn't.
These days women CAN divorce their husbands. There is no verse in the Bible which says that a woman can't kick her husband out - does that mean I would be allowed to do so? Why not; the Bible doesn't forbid it.

So the principle is; if you are married - male or female - this is the teaching on marriage. Similarly, if you are a leader - male or female - this is how you should behave.
That seems like a great point, and I understand how easy it can be to dismiss the instructions given to women in 1st Timothy based off of that. What it falls to address is that just a few verses prior to instructions to become overseers and deacons, Paul directly addresses several expectations of women.

11 A woman (or wife) should learn in quietness and full submission. 12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man (or husband) she must be quiet. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner.

As you see, there is no way around these verses. Paul literally gave the reason these instructions were included in the Bible right there. Verses 13 and 14 reveal to us that these instructions apply to women. Not just women of a certain time period; not just women of a certain culture, but all women, starting with Eve, the very first woman.
 
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The old testament doesn't override 1st Timothy.
Acts 2:1 And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.

2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting.

3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them.

4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.

5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.

6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.

7 And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?

8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?

9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,

10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,

11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.

12 And they were all amazed, and were in doubt, saying one to another, What meaneth this?

13 Others mocking said, These men are full of new wine.

14 But Peter, standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them, Ye men of Judaea, and all ye that dwell at Jerusalem, be this known unto you, and hearken to my words:

15 For these are not drunken, as ye suppose, seeing it is but the third hour of the day.

16 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel;

17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:

18 And on my servants and on my handmaidens I will pour out in those days of my Spirit; and they shall prophesy:
 
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The old testament doesn't override 1st Timothy.
Acts 18:26
And he began to speak boldly in the synagogue: whom when Aquila and Priscilla had heard, they took him unto them, and expounded unto him the way of God more perfectly.
 
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Strong in Him

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That seems like a great point, and I understand how easy it can be to dismiss the instructions given to women in 1st Timothy based off of that.
I'm not trying to dismiss what Paul is saying.
11 A woman (or wife)
That's the nub of it - is Paul talking about a woman or a wife?
All females are the first; not all will be the 2nd.
As you see, there is no way around these verses.
I'm not trying to find a way around the verses.
You previously asked how a woman can be the husband of one wife. That was a different Bible reference, was talking about leadership and my point was that women were not considered for leadership so he didn't list the qualities of a female leader.

In this passage in 1 Tim 2 you have already acknowledged that the word for woman can also be translated wife - and what he says about Adam and Eve makes more sense if we read it that way.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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All you gotta do to get me on your side is tell me how a woman can be the husband of one wife. Can you do that or not?

That is actually a good question, and assuming that 1 Timothy and 2 Timothy are indeed genuine letters of Paul and not pseudepigraphal in nature, I'll try my answer here in short order:

If a Christian man desires to be an ἐπίσκοπον, then in order for him to be above reproach and qualify, he can't have been married to more than one wife. Now, whether this means he can only have one wife who is alive in succession and without divorce, or that this instead means he can only have one wife during his entire lifetime and must remain a widow devoted to Christ in the case of her death, is open to further inquiry and deliberation.

However, where arguments against women being in church leadership are concerned, I don't think this qualification for men in the church should be a motte-and-bailey regarding the possibility of there being women in church leadership.


Moreover, the answer would depend upon our being able to ascertain additional information about the 1st century Christian tradition, information needed for clarification which we don't seem to have. But if you have that missing 1st century information, please present it...

In the meantime, I'm going to assume that, at the very least, women can teach men where two or three are gathered together in Jesus' name, like Priscilla did with Apollos, even if it requires she be the wife of, and in the presence of, but one husband, Aquila.
 
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Clare73

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Well, Paul does say for the woman not to teach or usurp authority "over" the man. It is also wrong for the man to teach and take undue, usurped authority "over" his wife.
I mean, there is godly teaching and there is unhumble and henpecking and dominating teaching.
So, I see how Paul can mean teaching in a wrong way. He says, for Eve was the one deceived, and therefore the wife should not teach the man. However, a Christian wife is not worldly and deceivable like Eve. But she could give in like how Eve did; and so she is warned not to be like Eve. But yes a Christian wife can help her man learn how to love and how to rule; and this is teaching him, but not "over" him. But Paul says, "teaching and admonishing one another", in Colossians 3:16. Not one over the other, but ministering to one another.

Plus, a good teacher demonstrates. One's actions and example are part of teaching. So, yes a wife's good example is helping her husband to learn the real meaning, the love meaning and not only some intellectual explanations, of God's word.

And I think of how Abigail rightly put David in his place: she even confronted and corrected him; but she did so in a way to honor and support David to be a great king and not ruin all that by doing what she stopped him from doing.

But there is the disdainful and dominating way that certain women can use teaching to put a man down. David did not criticize Abigail for helping him come to his senses. And she was teaching and helping him develop as a good king, not putting him down.

She was not communicating from disdainfulness, in that sort of teaching. She was speaking with a mouth of wisdom that no one could resist, possibly Jesus would say.
She was able to help David to learn how to love and how to rule. Every Christian lady can help to teach us men how to love and how to rule well in God's kingdom. Every lady of Jesus can be a man's helpmate, because Jesus in her makes her able to help anyone.
OT teaching is replaced by NT teaching, where such is presented,
starting with animal sacrifices for the remission of sin.
 
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ViaCrucis

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Hallo

i attend a conservative Pentecostal church and last sunday didn`t we have any services.
So i went to another service at a Pentecostal church with a female preacher.
What are you opinions on this for and against?

Timothy chapter 2 verses 11-12 says
11 Let a woman learn in silence with all submissiveness.

12 I permit no woman to teach or to have authority over men; she is to keep silent.

Happy new year to all God bless

Women have preached since apostolic times, and the history of the Christian Church provides examples of women teaching and preaching.

This isn't, however, the same thing as women being ordained as pastors. There isn't any evidence, biblically or historically, that women have ever been ordained.

So intrinsic to questions like this involves several things:

What is the particular beliefs one has about ordination and the pastoral office?
Is there any distinction of any kind between clergy and laity?

As it relates to 1 Timothy 2:11-12, what is the context and how does this fit into the larger Pauline corpus of thought? After all, St. Paul elsewhere speaks highly of women involved in ministerial work, we have examples of women engaged in apostolic and teaching work in the New Testament, such as Paul's mention of the Apostles Andronicus and Junia. We have in the Acts of the Apostles mention of a married couple, Priscilla and Aquilla acting as teachers to Apollos. In his first epistle to the Corinthians St. Paul speaks of women being active in praying and prophesying/preaching in the church.

So unless Paul is contradicting himself, there is clearly something different going on in the passage in 1 Timothy 2 than elsewhere where he lauds women, works with women, and recognizes women for being active in various ministerial capacities. An examination of the passage reveals that the word used which sometimes gets translated as "to have authority over" has a more specific meaning; which is why some translations (like the KJV) uses the word "to usurp", and others translate it as "to control" or "to dominate". The specific Greek word Paul uses here is a hapax legomenon, or an isolated word--it appears no where else in the New Testament. Outside of the New Testament it is used to speak of people who acting on their own accord commit murder, or it refers to those who act as autocrats. In fact William Tyndale translates this word as "to have autocracy". The word means to act, in an autocratic manner, by one's own authority; thus one is not acting or doing something by valid authority but by one's own authority, with the undertone of this being violent or violating--imposing one's will over and against another by force.

This suggests that the issue in 1 Timothy 2 isn't women having authority of any kind (even over men); but acting of their own accord outside of the ordinary means of authority in the church. And that's what sets them apart from, for example, the women elsewhere in the New Testament who clearly have varying levels of authority (including over men), who can teach, preach, and engage in ministerial work but who are praised as "fellow laborers". It's not about being a man or a woman, it's about the problem of disorder in the church.

Now while that clears some things up about the meaning of 2 Timothy 2; it doesn't address whether women can or should be ordained to the pastorate. That's a much bigger question, and involves those aforementioned questions I asked: What is the nature of the pastorate, and is there a distinction between clergy and laity?

For example I would argue that there is a difference between a lay-preacher and a pastor. Anyone can preach, but not anyone can be a pastor. To be a pastor involves being ordained, and ordination is serious--it is vesting in someone significant responsibility and authority by the Church, to be shepherd over Christ's flock. Which is why in Paul's Pastoral Epistles he is very strict about who can be ordained, the vetting process is serious. But that's not true about someone who preaches, anyone can preach a sermon, anyone can proclaim the Gospel, anyone give a homily about Scripture (now, not everyone should, but anyone can). So while all pastors are preachers, not all preachers are pastors.

In none of this have I said whether women can/should be pastors one way or another. Rather I'm trying to parse different ideas. In my opinion (and that's all it is), I have never encountered an argument which would indicate that a woman cannot be ordained. While female ordination is unknown until modern times; I simply cannot find a biblical command against it. There is no biblical prescription forbidding women from ordination. Further, ordination is an ecclesiastical act (as a Lutheran I do not embrace sacerdotalism) and is primarily about how the Church preserves and maintains the Sacred and Divine Office of the Keys. Are only men permitted to exercise the Office of the Keys? I do not see anywhere in Scripture that states this. Though it is a matter of indisputable historic record that only men have ever been ordained since apostolic and ancient times. Is historical precedent, in this case, prescriptive or descriptive? I am uncomfortable with relying on cultural norms (including cultural gender norms) to be used as a prescriptive or treated as having the same weight as God's Law and Command.

But, as I said, this is my opinion. I do not claim to speak on behalf of the Lutheran tradition, or any Lutheran church by providing my opinion. My own Lutheran synod (TAALC) does not ordain women, but does include women in lay leadership positions. My previous synod (ELCA) does ordain women. The reason why I am no longer ELCA is somewhat complicated, even if I do happen to agree with the ELCA on certain issues, and disagree with TAALC on a couple issues. The TL;DR version of that is it comes down to Confessionalism.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Clare73

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Women have preached since apostolic times, and the history of the Christian Church provides examples of women teaching and preaching.
It's not about preaching, it's about pastoring; i.e., teaching with authority, as is made plainly clear by the principle of creation in which the prohibition is grounded.

Where do we find women ordained for pastorship in the first 1500+ years of the church?

We don't. . .because that is how the church has always understood Paul's clear prohibition. . .until secular feminism.
 
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ViaCrucis

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It's not about preaching, it's about pastoring; i.e., teaching with authority, as is made plainly clear by the principle of creation in which the prohibition is grounded.

Where do we find women ordained for pastorship in the first 1500+ years of the church?

We don't. . .because that is how the church has always understood Paul's clear prohibition. . .until secular feminism.

My post goes over all this already.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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ViaCrucis

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It does not deal with 2 Tim 2:13-14, the principle of creation in which the prohibition is grounded.

If you would be so kind as to connect the dots, that would be helpful. How does this provide a prohibition of female ordination?

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Clare73

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If you would be so kind as to connect the dots, that would be helpful. How does this provide a prohibition of female ordination?

-CryptoLutheran
"For" (v. 13) connects v. 12 to vv. 13-14, stating the reason women are not allowed to be pastors (who have teaching authority over men).
 
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ViaCrucis

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"For" (v. 13) connects v. 12 to vv. 13-14, stating the reason women are not allowed to be pastors (who have teaching authority over men).

Paul doesn't mention pastors in 1 Timothy 2. So how are you reaching that conclusion?

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Clare73

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Paul doesn't mention pastors in 1 Timothy 2. So how are you reaching that conclusion?

-CryptoLutheran
The position of pastor in the NT church was a teaching authority for the assembly.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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The position of pastor in the NT church was a teaching authority for the assembly.

The word used in 1 Timothy is specifically, ἐπίσκοπον, not ποιμένας .

(And we also have διάκονον to consider as well, such as in Romans 16:1)
 
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Strong in Him

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It's not about preaching, it's about pastoring; i.e., teaching with authority, as is made plainly clear by the principle of creation in which the prohibition is grounded.
How are you defining "Pastoring"?
The word comes from the Latin which means "shepherd" - Rachel was a shepherd, Genesis 29:9.

Pastoral work is, traditionally, caring, visiting the sick, listening/counselling.
 
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Rose_bud

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Hallo

i attend a conservative Pentecostal church and last sunday didn`t we have any services.
So i went to another service at a Pentecostal church with a female preacher.
What are you opinions on this for and against?

Timothy chapter 2 verses 11-12 says
11 Let a woman learn in silence with all submissiveness.

12 I permit no woman to teach or to have authority over men; she is to keep silent.

Happy new year to all God bless
Hey Birck DK :wave:

What was your thoughts about the service? Were you edified, were you encouraged? Do you believe Gods Word was shared with you, were you challenged to love God. Was Jesus uplifted? Would you ask these questions regardless of the gender of the mouthpiece?
 
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Clare73

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How are you defining "Pastoring"?
The word comes from the Latin which means "shepherd" - Rachel was a shepherd, Genesis 29:9.

Pastoral work is, traditionally, caring, visiting the sick, listening/counselling.
Paul's usage of it in 1 Tim 2:12 is in regard to its office of teaching.
 
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ViaCrucis

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The position of pastor in the NT church was a teaching authority for the assembly.

I'm comfortable saying that teaching and having authority are both qualities to be associated with the exercising of the Divine Office of the Keys (aka, pastor).

But your argument is that 1 Timothy 2 is referring to pastors, and that women can't be pastors on the basis of what's written therein. You've made assertions, but you haven't made a proper argument. At least not in your responses to me.

It does not appear that Paul is talking about the pastoral office, he speaks of wives and husbands here, and of the wives acting outside appropriate authoritative channels. And, certainly, Paul does bring up Adam and Eve here--it is inappropriate for these women to usurp authority and dominate the men. I suspect that Paul may even have had in mind--though he does not say it outright--the statement in Genesis 3:16.

Here, one might argue that it would be prohibited for a woman to, over and against her husband, seek to have authority and to teach; but would not exclude women from having validly ordained authority--unmarried women or women who are working in cooperation and partnership with their husbands.

My point isn't to quibble. Rather my point is, as I said earlier, I have not been convinced or persuaded by arguments that the ordination of women is prohibited in Scripture. I can find no divine command against it.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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